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OEC and YEC Discussion

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sjdennis

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Lion of God said:
Gen 1:2 And the earth was without form, and void; and darkness was upon the face of the deep. And the Spirit of God moved upon the face of the waters.

This is the next verse to consider. Using scripture to interpret scripture we consider the the terms "without form" which in the original Hebrew is tohuw. This word is used in Isa 24:10 and Isa 34:11. In these cases it is used in terms of a judgement and action by the Lord upon the land or city it is referring to.
This is especially the case in Jer 4:23 where the exact phrase as Gen 1:2 is used:

Jer 4:23 I beheld the earth, and, lo, it was without form, and void; and the heavens, and they had no light.

Significant that it was written almost exactly the same to describe a different event.

The last verse to consider is Isa
45:18 where He says:

Isa 45:18 For thus saith the LORD that created the heavens; God himself that formed the earth and made it; he hath established it, he created it not in vain, he formed it to be inhabited: I am the LORD; and there is none else.

The Hebrew word for vain is again tohuw. The Lord is saying here that He does not create the state of the Earth as we find it in Gen 1:2, but rather it is in the type of state that is a result of a judgement that He has laid on it.
Following that line of reasoning, I see it as reasonable to assume that there was previous creation that God judged
and subsequently destroyed.

If my reasoning is flawed, I would welcome any comments to set me straight.
(from a scriptural point of view)


The argument about the difference between the words tohu and bohu has many problems, and has been dealt with previously by many people. If you have done research into this issue I assume you will have come across "The Answers Book" published by AIG. This has a good summary of the problems with this argument. A very detailed rejection of these ideas from the Hebrew is given in the book Unformed and Unfilled (the below is copied from the AIG website):

Unformed and Unfilled (Softcover)
Weston W. Fields
Back in print! This is the best and most detailed critique of the Gap theory available. The author looks at the inconsistencies of this position and shows that the Hebrew language in Genesis does not allow for such a gap.

I used to have this book but have now mislaid it so cannot remember all the arguments. It certainly convinced me at the time however, it is very well-written and comprehensive.

This book is essential reading for anyone interested in the Gap theory, and is available from the AIG website www.answersingenesis.org

Now I sound like a salesman! Sorry about that.

Rather than me writing a long-winded rebuttel of the theory here, check out
http://www.answersingenesis.org/home/area/faq/compromise.asp
This webpage contains links to a large number of articles about the gap theory. Happy reading!
 
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LoG

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sjdennis said:
Rather than me writing a long-winded rebuttel of the theory here, check out
http://www.answersingenesis.org/home/area/faq/compromise.asp
This webpage contains links to a large number of articles about the gap theory. Happy reading!

Thanks for the links sjdennis, unfortunately it only took about 3 articles to see that there were contradictions, misinformation and ambiguous interpretations in the rebuttals. The belief that there is a gap in the Genesis account predates Darwin by at least a couple thousand years and was not in response to the geological findings in the early 1800. The idea was resurrected and gained popularity because of geology and Darwin but that isn't a refutation of the theology as 2 of the articles were attempting to imply.

Here are several links that I think represent my position well:
http://www.creationdays.dk/withoutformandvoid/Articles.php
http://www.christiangeology.com/
http://www.custance.org/
 
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sjdennis

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Lion of God said:
Thanks for the links sjdennis, unfortunately it only took about 3 articles to see that there were contradictions, misinformation and ambiguous interpretations in the rebuttals. The belief that there is a gap in the Genesis account predates Darwin by at least a couple thousand years and was not in response to the geological findings in the early 1800. The idea was resurrected and gained popularity because of geology and Darwin but that isn't a refutation of the theology as 2 of the articles were attempting to imply.
Could you please clarify what source you are using to say that the gap theory "predates Darwin by at least a couple thousand years"? If you are using Custance's book "Without form and void", might I point out that Weston W. Fields has been through all of Custance's references (and many more) claiming this and shown that
1) none of them supported a ruin / reconstruction model
2) a very small minority of writers through church history have suggested the idea of some sort of gap in creation, however without any ruin / reconstruction idea
3) the vast majority of church fathers and other writers over the last 2000 years (before 1800) supported the natural reading of Genesis 1
Which writers are you basing this claim upon? As I have seen no evidence to verify this claim ever.

PS: I had a hunt for my copy of that book (Unfomed and Unfilled) and have now found it. It's conclusions are even more solid than I remembered from previous reading. I would highly recommend it for your study.
 
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LoG

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sjdennis said:
Could you please clarify what source you are using to say that the gap theory "predates Darwin by at least a couple thousand years"? .......................................................................................
Which writers are you basing this claim upon? As I have seen no evidence to verify this claim ever.



Here you go:
We are in no position at present to determine precisely how the Jewish commentators made the discovery, but their early literature (the, Midrash for example) reveals that they had some intimation of an early pre-Adamic catastrophe affecting the whole earth. Similarly, clear evidence appears in the oldest extant Version of the Hebrew Scriptures (the Targum of Onkelos) and some intimation may be seen in the "punctuation marks" of the Massoretic text of Genesis Chapter One. Early Jewish writers subsequently built up some abstruse arguments about God's dealings with Israel on the basis of this belief and it would seem that Paul in his Epistle to the Corinthians is at one point making indirect reference to this traditional background.
A few of the early Church Fathers accepted this interpretation and based some of their doctrines upon it. It is true that both they and their Jewish antecedents used arguments which to us seem at times to have no force whatever, but this is not the issue. The truth is, as we shall see, that the idea of a once ordered world having been brought to ruin as a consequence of divine judgment just prior to the creation of Adam, was apparently quite widespread. It was not debated: it was merely held by some and not by others. Those who held it referred to it and built up arguments upon it without apparently feeling the need to apologize for believing as they did, nor for explaining the grounds for their faith.
During succeeding centuries not a few scholars kept the view alive, and medieval scholars wrote about it at some length - often using phraseology which gives their work a remarkably modern ring.
The Book of Jasher, Alcuin's version, seems clearly to assume it - even though the document itself has a questionable pedigree. It certainly antedates modern Geology in any case.
And for the past two hundred years many translators and commentators have maintained the view and elaborated upon it at length.
In short, it is not a recent interpretation of the text of Gen. 1. 1 and 1. 2, but an ancient one long antedating modern geological views. Indeed - it could be as old as the writing of Gen. 1. 2 itself! Some of the ancient Sumerian and Babylonian fragments that, when pieced together, give us a general view of their cosmogony, seem to lend support to it as a very ancient belief.

Quoted from here: A Long Held View

More from the site:

"But in making these remarks I have been conceding too much. The views which I have exhibited are not of yesterday. It is important and interesting to observe how the early fathers of the Christian church should seem to have entertained precisely similar views: for St. Gregory Nazianzen, after St. Justin Martyr, supposes an indefinite period between the creation and the first ordering of all things. St. Basil, St. Caesarius , and Origen, are much more explicit. To these might be added Augustine, Theodoert, Episcopius and others . Whose remarks imply the existence of a considerable interval 'between the creation related in the first verse of Genesis, and that of which an account is given in the third and following verses'. In modern times, but long before geology became a science, the independent character of the opening sentence of Genesis was affirmed by such judicious and learned men as Calvin , Bishop Patrick . and Dr. David Jennings. And 'in some old editions of the English Bible, where there is no division into verses, and in Luther's Bible (Wittenburg, 1557), you have in addition the figure 1 placed against the third verse, as being the beginning of the account of the creation of the first day'. Now these views were formed independently of all geological considerations. In the entire absence of evidence from this quarter - probably even in opposition to it , as some would think - these conclusions were arrived at on biblical grounds alone.
Geology only illustrates and confirms them. The works of God prove to be one with this preconceived meaning of his word. And there is no ground to expect that this early interpretation will gradually come to be universally accepted as the only correct one.
Excerpts from Some Supporting Authors."

Please understand that this isn't the viewpoint where we have a day/age creation or one creation millions or billions of years ago, but a literal Genesis/creation account etc. approximately 6000 years ago and built on the remains of previous creation(s).
The beauty of this viewpoint is that the geological and fossil record supports it rather than conflicts with it. The former high priest of ToE, S.J.Gould, proved the Gap Theory when he had to develop his punctuated equilibrium viewpoint to explain the seemingly lack of gradualism in the evolutionary record.
What the viewpoint is implying is that this world has been subjected to a number of creation/extinction events through its long history. I'm sure Gould had no intentions of that implication but for those who believe that only God is the Creator of all things and that nature is incapable of effecting positive changes in life forms in and of itself, his viewpoints are proving what Gap theorists have known for a few thousand years already.

Anyway lots of things you can look at from the pages I've listed. Meditate and pray on it and let the Spirit guide you into all truth.
 
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sjdennis

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Lion of God said:
The beauty of this viewpoint is that the geological and fossil record supports it rather than conflicts with it.
The geological record does not conflict with it to our current knowledge. However this is in large part due to the fact that, however much early support can be claimed for similar ideas, the theory in it's recent form has been promoted to explain and align with geology. The geological and fossil record is also consistent with sedimentary rock and fossils being laid down by the Flood of Noah, and many books have been published on this subject.

Thankyou for these quoted early supporters. I will attempt to go through them one by one and comment on what they actually said, because in the quote you included in your post none of their actual beliefs or statements were quoted. I will not know about all of them, but will do what I can. Sorry if this turns into a long post.

We are in no position at present to determine precisely how the Jewish commentators made the discovery, but their early literature (the, Midrash for example) reveals that they had some intimation of an early pre-Adamic catastrophe affecting the whole earth. Similarly, clear evidence appears in the oldest extant Version of the Hebrew Scriptures (the Targum of Onkelos) and some intimation may be seen in the "punctuation marks" of the Massoretic text of Genesis Chapter One.
Specific literature is not mentioned here except the Midrash, which I have little information on, so I will not include any quotes. However W. Fields has looked in detail at many ancient Jewish writings, and I will mention three here:

Philo, although writing about differing views held by others, himself believed that Genesis 1:2 was referring to original creation.

The Jewish Legends are too fanciful to be used to support or oppose anything really. They do say "Nor is this world inhabited by man the first of things earthly created by God. He made several worlds before ours, but He destroyed them all, because He was pleased with none until He created ours". The context of this is a very fanciful story about God asking the advice of the Torah on what He should do, the Torah advising Him that as He was worthy of the name "King" He should create an army, courtiers and attendants, so that someone could express homage to Him. On this, when read in it's context, Fields writes "...the legend never makes any allusion to the creation account of Genesis, it goes completely beyond Scripture in talking about worlds (plural), and it does not connect sin with the destruction of the worlds. It appears, in fact, that this legend views God as some imperfect bungler who has to try and try, and finally He is able to produce a world that He likes. Finally, this legend does not posit any necessary connection between our own earth and the previously created and destroyed worlds."

The Targum Onkelos literally says in Genesis 1:2 "and the earth was waste". Custance interpreted the word "waste" in a certain tense that would mean, according to him, "to cut" or "to lay waste", so Custance interpreted the Targum Onkelos as saying "and the earth was laid waste". However the precise stem of the verb that is used in the Aramaic is defined by M. Jastrow (1950) in his works on ancient Hebrew scripture as meaning "to be confounded, to be desolate", NOT "to be made...". In interpreting this passage in this way Custance differs with the normal translation of Aramaic. The Targum Onkelos, when translated according to commonly accepted rules, does not offer any support for the Gap theory, and if anything speaks against it.

Early Jewish writers subsequently built up some abstruse arguments about God's dealings with Israel on the basis of this belief and it would seem that Paul in his Epistle to the Corinthians is at one point making indirect reference to this traditional background.
I am not sure what reference this is. However, "...it would seem that Paul ... is at one point making indirect reference..." is not a particularly strong argument for anything, so this passage is probably of little relevance as compared with other references.

A few of the early Church Fathers accepted this interpretation and based some of their doctrines upon it. It is true that both they and their Jewish antecedents used arguments which to us seem at times to have no force whatever, but this is not the issue. The truth is, as we shall see, that the idea of a once ordered world having been brought to ruin as a consequence of divine judgment just prior to the creation of Adam, was apparently quite widespread. It was not debated: it was merely held by some and not by others. Those who held it referred to it and built up arguments upon it without apparently feeling the need to apologize for believing as they did, nor for explaining the grounds for their faith.
Church fathers that did not hold this view are widespread, and writings that support the natural reading of Genesis are common. Some spoke very strongly about the meaning of "without form and void", for example Tertullian (AD 160 - 220). I will not bother to quote any of these, but they appear to outnumber those holding dissenting views. Other examples of these writers are Irenaeus, Theophilus of Antioch, Lactantius, Augustine, Martin of Braga, Justin Martyr, Tatian and Hermas, Athanasius, Gregory of Nyssa, Ambrose, and Jerome. All these writers date from before 600 AD, most from much earlier.

The main early church father quoted by Custance as supporting the Gap theory is Origen (AD 185 - 254). Origen wrote in one place on Genesis 1:1 "It is certain that the present firmament is not spoken of in this verse, nor the present dry land, but rather the heaven and earth from which this present heaven and earth that we now see afterwards borrowed their names". When taken out of context this quote appears to offer some shaky support for some sort of a gap-type view. However it is more likely that Origen was simply meaning that the present firmament and dry land are now considerably different to the firmament and dry land spoken of in Genesis 1:1, due to the other acts of creation over the following 5 days. This is because elsewhere Origens writing indicates that he did not believe in a gap.
Origen also wrote "Very many, indeed, are of the opinion that the matter of which things are made is itself signified in the language used by Moses in the beginning of Genesis: "In the beginning God made heaven and earth; and the earth was invisible, and not arranged", for by the words "invisible and not arranged" Moses would seem to mean nothing else than shapeless matter." Here Origen appears to be directly stating that Genesis 1:2 is a description of the state of the world created in Genesis 1:1, certainly not the result of a ruin / reconstruction event.
Origen said "This world had it's beginning at a certain time, and ... agreeably to our belief in Scripture, we can calculate the years of it's past duration". If Origen believed in a gap, he would have believed that adding up the geneologies etc in Scripture would NOT allow someone to calculate the age of the earth.
One final very interesting thing Origen said on the matter of Creation was this: "Even the heretics, although widely opposed on many other things, yet on this appear to be at one, yielding to the authority of Scripture." Origen is stating that Christians at that time were all agreed on Creation, so he did not appear to know of anyone who held a ruin / reconstruction view at that point!

During succeeding centuries not a few scholars kept the view alive, and medieval scholars wrote about it at some length - often using phraseology which gives their work a remarkably modern ring.
The Book of Jasher, Alcuin's version, seems clearly to assume it - even though the document itself has a questionable pedigree. It certainly antedates modern Geology in any case.
I know nothing about the book of Jasher, so unfortunately can offer no comments on that. However if the document has a questionable pedigree it should not be relied on ahead of other medieval writings. Many other pre-geological scholars wrote strongly supporting the common reading of Genesis one, including such names as Martin Luther and John Calvin.

And for the past two hundred years many translators and commentators have maintained the view and elaborated upon it at length.
These writers have all been after the advent of modern geology, so cannot help but have been influenced by it's teachings.

In short, it is not a recent interpretation of the text of Gen. 1. 1 and 1. 2, but an ancient one long antedating modern geological views. Indeed - it could be as old as the writing of Gen. 1. 2 itself! Some of the ancient Sumerian and Babylonian fragments that, when pieced together, give us a general view of their cosmogony, seem to lend support to it as a very ancient belief.
Again I know little about this. However we should believe Scripture and Christian or Jewish writers on this subject, rather than writings that will have been influenced by alternative religious views, if we wish to obtain an accurate understanding of what God wishes to convey in Genesis.

More from the site:

"But in making these remarks I have been conceding too much. The views which I have exhibited are not of yesterday. It is important and interesting to observe how the early fathers of the Christian church should seem to have entertained precisely similar views: for St. Gregory Nazianzen, after St. Justin Martyr, supposes an indefinite period between the creation and the first ordering of all things. St. Basil, St. Caesarius , and Origen, are much more explicit. To these might be added Augustine, Theodoert, Episcopius and others . Whose remarks imply the existence of a considerable interval 'between the creation related in the first verse of Genesis, and that of which an account is given in the third and following verses'.
I have already spoken about Origen at length. I previously mentioned St. Justin Martyr and Augustine as not supporting the Gap view, and I fail to see how they supported it. The other writers mentioned here I do not know much about, so cannot offer any further comments. However as those that I do know about (eg Origen) can be shown to actually not support this view, I do wonder about the validity of the claims about other writers.
More on Augustine: Augustine has in the past been claimed to have believed the days of creation were 1000 years long, although he clearly taught otherwise in his writings (eg. "Sermons on the Liturgical Seasons". I have never heard of him being associated with the gap theory before, but wonder if there are any grounds for this claim either.

In modern times, but long before geology became a science, the independent character of the opening sentence of Genesis was affirmed by such judicious and learned men as Calvin , Bishop Patrick . and Dr. David Jennings.
Calvin wrote "For Moses simply intends to assert that the world was not perfected at it's very commencement, in the manner in which it is now seen, but that it was created an empty chaos of heaven and earth. His language therefore may be thus explained. When God in the beginning created the heaven and the earth, the earth was empty and waste... ... There is no douby that Moses gives the name of heaven and earth to that confused mass which he shortly afterwards (verse 2) denominates waters." Here Calvin is very clearly writing that Genesis 1:1 was very closely associated with Genesis 1:2, actually writing the two as one sentence. Calvin's own writings clearly refute the claim that he believed "the independent character of the open sentence of genesis", and most certainly did not support a Gap view.
I know little about Bishop Patrick and Dr. David Jennings.

And 'in some old editions of the English Bible, where there is no division into verses, and in Luther's Bible (Wittenburg, 1557), you have in addition the figure 1 placed against the third verse, as being the beginning of the account of the creation of the first day'.
The Tyndale version of the Bible (1530), writes " In the begynnynge God created heaven and erth. The erth was voyde and emptie ad darcknesse was vpon the depe and the spirite of god moved vpon the water. Than God sayd: let there be lyghte and there was lyghte." This translation has no suggestion of a gap, verse two simply describing the state of the earth. Other early translations are very similar (the Great Bible (1540), the Geneva Bible (1560-62), the Bishop's Bible (1568-1602), the Douay Version (1609)). I have not read Luther's bible, but the claim made about it in the quote is very shaky. Most old translations appear to support the natural reading of the passage, and this is in fact confirmed by the above quote, saying "some old versions" - ie the majority of versions did not suggest this view, otherwise the quote would read "most old versions".

Now these views were formed independently of all geological considerations. In the entire absence of evidence from this quarter - probably even in opposition to it , as some would think - these conclusions were arrived at on biblical grounds alone.
Geology only illustrates and confirms them. The works of God prove to be one with this preconceived meaning of his word. And there is no ground to expect that this early interpretation will gradually come to be universally accepted as the only correct one.
The pre-geological authors that were mentioned in these quotes that I had material on certainly did not actually appear to support the gap view. I personally know of no evidence to suggest that the gap theory, as a ruin / reconstruction theory, was not formulated until the rise of modern geology. I see no evidence that it has been derived from scriptural analysis initially, but rather think that scripture has been interpreted to fit a long-age geological viewpoint.

I see much scientific evidence to support the interpretation of the bible along the grounds of the natural reading of Genesis 1. Flood geology can be explained just as easily by a global flood of Noah as by "Lucifer's flood" between Genesis 1 and 2. In fact, if Noah's flood was global, it would obliterate the evidence of fossils and flood geology from a pre-existing world and former flood, and create it's own geology which we see today.

There is much evidence the earth is relatively young, much less than claimed by long-age geologists. Also, the idea of long ages was initially based on uniformitarian geology. If we have one global flood (Noah's), or even more so if we have two (Lucifer's as well), this means geology has been created through catastrophe, not uniformitarianism. And this eliminates the need for long ages in the first place.
 
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laptoppop

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If you are an OEC, then what about the flood? Was it worldwide? Where are the physical evidences for it?

As a YEC, I believe the fossil record, the stratification of sediments, featurs such as the Grand Canyon, on and on - stand as testimony to the working of the flood. The field of how the fossil record came about is ripe for deep examination.

I did an experiment with my son in a fishtank in our front yard that showed that some of the prime principles used in geology concerning sedimentation are just not true, especially in the case of a massive flood. Specifically we were able to challenge three basic principles of geology:
A. The principle of superposition:
". . . at the time when any given stratum was being formed, all the matter resting upon it was fluid, and, therefore, at the time when the lower stratum was being formed, none of the upper strata existed."​
B. The principle of initial horizontality:
"Strata either perpendicular to the horizon or inclined to the horizon were at one time parallel to the horizon."​
C. The principle of strata continuity:
"Material forming any stratum were continuous over the surface of the Earth unless some other solid bodies stood in the way."
We did this after a quick exposure to the work of Guy Berthault. One article that describes his work is at http://www.icr.org/index.php?module=articles&action=view&ID=473

It turns out that these principles have mostly been accepted without being tested experimentally. This challenges some of the most basic presuppositions used in interpreting the geologic column.

-lee-
 
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LoG

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sjdennis said:
The geological and fossil record is also consistent with sedimentary rock and fossils being laid down by the Flood of Noah, and many books have been published on this subject.

I believe in a literal worldwide flood in the time of Noah, but disagree that all the sedimentary rock could have been laid down during that time. How did hundreds if not thousands of feet get deposited on top of the "ancient mountains" ?(Deu 33:15 KJV)

I see much scientific evidence to support the interpretation of the bible along the grounds of the natural reading of Genesis 1. Flood geology can be explained just as easily by a global flood of Noah as by "Lucifer's flood" between Genesis 1 and 2. In fact, if Noah's flood was global, it would obliterate the evidence of fossils and flood geology from a pre-existing world and former flood, and create it's own geology which we see today.

It might have buried the evidence of Lucifers Flood but not obliterated it. The problem for Noah's flood from the YEC position is that it would have needed to be such a catastrophic event that it would have taken a large miracle to keep the Ark afloat. An event of that magnitude with the type of forces required to move the entire earth around would not have been conducive to uniform layering of strata that can be seen in the geological record.
There is much evidence the earth is relatively young, much less than claimed by long-age geologists. Also, the idea of long ages was initially based on uniformitarian geology. If we have one global flood (Noah's), or even more so if we have two (Lucifer's as well), this means geology has been created through catastrophe, not uniformitarianism. And this eliminates the need for long ages in the first place.

I am not a proponent of Uniformatism, however I don't see the issue as being whether we "need" long ages so much as whether there were or not.
You may not agree but the fact remains that "was without form and void" is in other parts of the bible a result of divine judgement. Even the word "was" in hebrew is often translated "became".

Not trying to ignore the work you did in studying up on the beliefs of the early Church fathers, however I find debating it, difficult. We already have problems rightly dividing the Word of God, nevermind the incomplete writings of of the Fathers who also being human were prone to see things differently as God granted them revelations during their lifetimes.
 
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laptoppop

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Lion of God said:
I believe in a literal worldwide flood in the time of Noah, but disagree that all the sedimentary rock could have been laid down during that time. How did hundreds if not thousands of feet get deposited on top of the "ancient mountains" ?(Deu 33:15 KJV)
I don't follow this logic. I could be missing something, but where does that verse say that the "ancient mountains" were in place before the flood? Created during the flood or before -- both would be "ancient", wouldn't they?
It might have buried the evidence of Lucifers Flood but not obliterated it. The problem for Noah's flood from the YEC position is that it would have needed to be such a catastrophic event that it would have taken a large miracle to keep the Ark afloat.
There have been lots of studies about how such an ark wold float, including a number of different suggestions about how the design would have been amazingly stable, given the dimensions we know from the Word. Many of the possible ark designs are self-righting. I don't think there's enough detail in the Word for us to definitely rule on the exact design.

In any flood, there are violent areas and calm areas. The interplay of the various hydrodynamic forces must have been fascinating. If you grant the miracles of 1) The eternal God talking directly with Noah, 2) guiding all of the animals onto the ark, 3) shutting the door with His own power, etc., then to me it seems minor if He chose to have the ark float in an area of more constrained activity. Indeed, some of the most violent actions, such as those that created some of the current undersea canyons, and the Grand Canyon in the states, would have happened after the flood itself, while the planet was recovering.
An event of that magnitude with the type of forces required to move the entire earth around would not have been conducive to uniform layering of strata that can be seen in the geological record.
Actually, the geologic column is much easier to explain in terms of a global flood. The column shows layering remarkably consistent with hydrodynamic deposition. In the experiment with my boy, we mixed a mumber of elements together and poured them into a fishtank, with occasional pauses. The layering that was created was remarkable. Many layers formed at one time, layers were formed in a non-horizontal manner, etc. In hydrodynamic deposition, the way the layers are formed depends on a variety of factors, including speed, concentrations, temperature, etc. The variety in the geologic column maps nicely to the kind of changes one might expect in a global flood.

Indeed, one of the issues for interpreting the column as ancient is that there are similar layers throughout the earth, and over huge regions. If the column was formed over a long time, then you have the problem of needing local event after local event, timed in a similar fashion over large areas, with protection of the column and previous layers from the normal processes of erosion, etc. The area around the volcano in Oregon, usa, that erupted has clearly demonstrated that fossils can form quickly, and demonstrates some of the issues that frustrate old earth interpretation of the column, such as trees that cut through "millions of years" of strata.

If the column was not formed over a long time, then where is the physical evidence for an old earth?
I am not a proponent of Uniformatism, however I don't see the issue as being whether we "need" long ages so much as whether there were or not.
One of the primary reasons for interpreting the age of the earth and the geologic column as old is to allow enough time for evolution to work. Even as the YEC must explain each of the proposed evidences for an old earth, the evolutionist must explain each of the evidences of a young earth -- but most evolutionists decline to even start discussing it, probably because they do not want to give credence to the YEC scientists.
You may not agree but the fact remains that "was without form and void" is in other parts of the bible a result of divine judgement. Even the word "was" in hebrew is often translated "became".
This is true, and honestly I would not have a problem with a gap. It is instructive that the Septuigant, a Greek translation of the OT made before Christ, translates gen 1:1 in a non-gap manner. I just don't see a need for a gap, and I don't believe the geologic column and the fossil record supports it.

Great discussion!
-lee-
 
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LoG

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laptoppop said:
I don't follow this logic. I could be missing something, but where does that verse say that the "ancient mountains" were in place before the flood? Created during the flood or before -- both would be "ancient", wouldn't they?

Considering the author of Dueteronomy was calling the mountains "ancient" 800 years after the flood I would have to question his terminology if that is what he had in mind. The case for the mountains having been significantly older than that is strong from a scriptural perspective.


There have been lots of studies about how such an ark wold float, including a number of different suggestions about how the design would have been amazingly stable, given the dimensions we know from the Word. Many of the possible ark designs are self-righting. I don't think there's enough detail in the Word for us to definitely rule on the exact design.-.-.-.-.-;-In any flood, there are violent areas and calm areas. The interplay of the various hydrodynamic forces must have been fascinating.

After reading a couple of YEC sites about the forces that would hve been required to bring about the changes to Earth's geology, ie: Water in violent commotion, huge tidal waves 10,000 volcanoes all going off at once, the liklihood of a wooden boat surviving that would be nil. It is known that tidal waves are capable of circling the globe so the idea that there were pockets of relatively calm waters seems a bit of a stretch.

If you grant the miracles of 1) The eternal God talking directly with Noah, 2) guiding all of the animals onto the ark, 3) shutting the door with His own power, etc., then to me it seems minor if He chose to have the ark float in an area of more constrained activity. Indeed, some of the most violent actions, such as those that created some of the current undersea canyons, and the Grand Canyon in the states, would have happened after the flood itself, while the planet was recovering.

Although the bible doesn't talk about it, the Book of Jasher does include that there was a point where the waters became violent enough for everything on board the Ark to question whether they were going to survive. As a result of Noah's prayer, God then calmed the waters. You may see that as a vindication of your thinking but I would disagree. It tells me that except for a brief period the waters never even became violent enough to actually threaten a large ship much less cause the large changes to the face of the Earth.

Actually, the geologic column is much easier to explain in terms of a global flood. The column shows layering remarkably consistent with hydrodynamic deposition. In the experiment with my boy, we mixed a mumber of elements together and poured them into a fishtank, with occasional pauses. The layering that was created was remarkable. Many layers formed at one time, layers were formed in a non-horizontal manner, etc. In hydrodynamic deposition, the way the layers are formed depends on a variety of factors, including speed, concentrations, temperature, etc. The variety in the geologic column maps nicely to the kind of changes one might expect in a global flood.

Indeed, one of the issues for interpreting the column as ancient is that there are similar layers throughout the earth, and over huge regions. If the column was formed over a long time, then you have the problem of needing local event after local event, timed in a similar fashion over large areas, with protection of the column and previous layers from the normal processes of erosion, etc. The area around the volcano in Oregon, usa, that erupted has clearly demonstrated that fossils can form quickly, and demonstrates some of the issues that frustrate old earth interpretation of the column, such as trees that cut through "millions of years" of strata.

I don't disagree with what you say here. The geological coloumn does seem to have a few inconsistencies.

If the column was not formed over a long time, then where is the physical evidence for an old earth?

The first piece of evidence I was going to put forward was Ice-Cores, however after reading this article while researching, I though it rather shaky evidence. My next piece of evidence involves oil and coal supplies.
The YEC model says that oil, coal, and natural gas formed from vegetation and marine plankton that was buried at the time of the Flood. Considering the supply that has been used in the last couple of hundred years combined with the amount still available it would appear an impossibility that this all came from what was available at the time of the Flood. In fact it has been estimated that what we have already used up would require 13,300 years to grow.
One of the primary reasons for interpreting the age of the earth and the geologic column as old is to allow enough time for evolution to work. Even as the YEC must explain each of the proposed evidences for an old earth, the evolutionist must explain each of the evidences of a young earth -- but most evolutionists decline to even start discussing it, probably because they do not want to give credence to the YEC scientists.

I don't see evolution as being the primary reason for an old Earth and in fact the 6000 year model has been questioned for a couple thousand years already and was questioned again by geologists a century before evolutionists came into the picture.

This is true, and honestly I would not have a problem with a gap. It is instructive that the Septuigant, a Greek translation of the OT made before Christ, translates gen 1:1 in a non-gap manner. I just don't see a need for a gap, and I don't believe the geologic column and the fossil record supports it.

You'll have to point out the Septuigant version. I never looked at that figuring the Hebrew was about as close as I could get to the source.
I agree that the coloumn is ambiguous but the fossil record has a little better evidence for it. I think the some of the dating methods are somewhat suspect but they do still point out differences in various fossils.
 
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sjdennis

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Lion of God said:
Considering the author of Dueteronomy was calling the mountains "ancient" 800 years after the flood I would have to question his terminology if that is what he had in mind. The case for the mountains having been significantly older than that is strong from a scriptural perspective.
The word "ancient" is relative, and depends entirely on your perception. If I saw an 800 year old building, I would call it ancient. If I met an 800 year old man, I would certainly call him ancient. If I lived 800 years after the flood and knew that the earth had only existed for around 1800 years until that date, 800 years old for anything would be ancient. Anyway, we are arguing about the meaning of an English word that the Hebrew has been translated into anyway. This is a very shaky argument about the meaning of one word in a passage that has nothing whatsoever to do with creation when the verse is read in context.

The YEC model says that oil, coal, and natural gas formed from vegetation and marine plankton that was buried at the time of the Flood. Considering the supply that has been used in the last couple of hundred years combined with the amount still available it would appear an impossibility that this all came from what was available at the time of the Flood. In fact it has been estimated that what we have already used up would require 13,300 years to grow.
This sounds very interesting. Could you please refer us to a scientific paper on this, or failing that a website? Remember that if the climatic conditions were different before the flood, as is commonly believed, the amount of vegetation that could grow in a short time may have been much greater than could grow today. Also, if the flood waters were not yet on the earth the land surface area would be greater than we have today - the modern world being still mostly covered in water. This would have allowed even more plant growth. But I would like to see the original reference to assess this.

I don't see evolution as being the primary reason for an old Earth and in fact the 6000 year model has been questioned for a couple thousand years already and was questioned again by geologists a century before evolutionists came into the picture.
Considering my previous long-winded post, could you please point out who questioned the 6000 year model over the last 2000 years, before the rise of modern geology in the 18th & 19th centuries? And if they did question it, was this from the basis of scripture or science, and why?

You'll have to point out the Septuigant version. I never looked at that figuring the Hebrew was about as close as I could get to the source.
The Hebrew is our most authoritive source. However the Septuagint gives an indication as to what the ancient scholars believed the initial passages of Genesis meant.

The translation of the Hebrew word "waw", translated "and" at the start of Genesis 1:2 is the subject of some debate. The issue is whether it is a "waw consecutive", indicating something that comes after the thing before it (ie whether verse 2 happened after verse 1), or a "waw copulative" (also known as "waw disjunctive"), which would indicate that verse 2 was a description of verse 1. The Septuagint uses the Greek word "de" for "waw". "de" is normally used to interpose an explanation, and clearly indicates a waw copulative, not a waw consecutive. Therefore the translators definitely believed that the Hebrew of Genesis meant that verse 2 was a description of verse 1, they did not leave room for any time in between.

A second issue is the translation of the Hebrew word "hayeta", translated "was" in verse two. The issue here is whether verse 2 should read "the earth was without form and void" or "the earth became without form and void". The word "hayeta" is translated in the Septuagint using the Greek word "en", meaning "to be", NOT the alternative Greek word "ginomai", meaning "to become". The Septuagint text is very clear that the correct translation is "the earth was without form and void", again leaving no possibility of a gap between verses 1 & 2.

Thirdly, the words "tohu and bohu" (without form and void) that you have mentioned earlier, are at issue. The issue is whether they indicate a destruction and waste of something previously existing, or simply an unformed mass of uncompleted creation. These are translated in the Septuagint using the words "aoratos kai akataskeuastos", meaning "invisible and unwrought". This clearly indicates the state of the earth at the start of creation, NOT a chaotic state after a destruction of a previously existing world.

The Septuagint text is a very ancient and well-regarded translation, that gives us a good indication of how Genesis 1 should be understood. And it is very clear that there is no room for a gap.

I agree that the coloumn is ambiguous but the fossil record has a little better evidence for it. I think the some of the dating methods are somewhat suspect but they do still point out differences in various fossils.
The fossil record was, in either young earth or gap theories of creation, laid down by one or possibly two global floods. The fossil record can give no indication of the age of the earth if this is the case, it can only indicate that the earth is old IF it was formed slowly over millions of years by uniformatarian processes. If a large part of it was formed by flood waters, which I believe we are both probably in agreement about, then it can no longer be used as evidence for an old earth.
 
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LoG

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sjdennis said:
The word "ancient" is relative, and depends entirely on your perception. If I saw an 800 year old building, I would call it ancient. If I met an 800 year old man, I would certainly call him ancient. ------- This is a very shaky argument about the meaning of one word in a passage that has nothing whatsoever to do with creation when the verse is read in context.

According to YEC's the mountains were only around since the Flood 800 or so years previous while the Earth itself was supposedly about 2500 years old. The term "ancient" could not be considered appropriate from that perspective. The argument is valid since YEC's maintain that the strat that is on top of mountains was as a result of the mountains being raised after the Flood. The bible clearly contradicts that view from this term "ancient mountains" and Gen 7:19:
And the waters prevailed exceedingly upon the earth; and all the high mountains that were under the whole heaven were covered.

Which plainly says the mountains were already in existence at the beginning of the flood. It therefore requires YEC's to prove how how the strata and the fossils within it to have gotten on those mountains
This sounds very interesting. Could you please refer us to a scientific paper on this, or failing that a website? Remember that if the climatic conditions were different before the flood, as is commonly believed, the amount of vegetation that could grow in a short time may have been much greater than could grow today. Also, if the flood waters were not yet on the earth the land surface area would be greater than we have today - the modern world being still mostly covered in water. This would have allowed even more plant growth. But I would like to see the original reference to assess this.

The AIG site uses similar arguments as you do here but even a quick glance there indicates their computations and models as being far-fetched. In addition they fail to take into account that God directs Noah to construct the Ark:
Gen 6:14 Build a boat for yourself out of good timber; make rooms in it and cover it with tar inside and out.

Tar is a hydrocarbon which under the YEC model wouldn't have been available until after the Flood.
My source is here: http://www.christiangeology.com/sediment.html

Considering my previous long-winded post, could you please point out who questioned the 6000 year model over the last 2000 years, before the rise of modern geology in the 18th & 19th centuries? And if they did question it, was this from the basis of scripture or science, and why?

I think it best here to give you my source here. It is a fairly long article but explains it much better than I could.
http://www.creationdays.dk/withoutformandvoid/1.html


The Hebrew is our most authoritive source. However the Septuagint gives an indication as to what the ancient scholars believed the initial passages of Genesis meant.

The Septuagint text is a very ancient and well-regarded translation, that gives us a good indication of how Genesis 1 should be understood. And it is very clear that there is no room for a gap.

After doing some research on the foundation of the Septuagint, I have to question it. It was abandoned by jews because it diverged from the Masoretic texts. What the Septuagint is giving us is how those particular translators understood Genensis 1. Unfortunately there is some question as to what their source material was.


The Septuagint text is a very ancient and well-regarded translation, that gives us a good indication of how Genesis 1 should be understood. And it is very clear that there is no room for a gap.

Each successive translation introduces more potential for error. I believe it better to go from Hebrew-->English than Hebrew-->Aramic-->Greek-->English. I could be wrong on that but majority of scholars who have studied this dealt with the Hebrew version.

edit: It appears according to another article that the original Septuagint was translated from the Hebrew texts but with the idea in mind of showing the Hebrew cosmonology as being similar with the Greek/Egyptian one at that time. Please refer to this page for a detailed explanation for why hâyâh was translated to the Greek "en" in this one single instance out of 23 in this chapter and what the motivation was behind the Septuagint translation.
http://www.creationdays.dk/withoutformandvoid/4.html

The fossil record was, in either young earth or gap theories of creation, laid down by one or possibly two global floods. The fossil record can give no indication of the age of the earth if this is the case, it can only indicate that the earth is old IF it was formed slowly over millions of years by uniformatarian processes. If a large part of it was formed by flood waters, which I believe we are both probably in agreement about, then it can no longer be used as evidence for an old earth.

I'm not sure if I agree with you 100% on this statement. I have read some things from a YEC perspective in their attempts to jam all of the Earth's history into a 6000 year time frame but haven't studied it to any great degree. Some things appear reasonably plausibly but there were other apects that seemed a bit of a stretch. This of course is only accomplished by blinding oneself or refuting completely all the known dating methods. Although I agree that there is some question as to the assumptions that are required to validate them, the standard YEC model has no good reason why they are not good assumptions.

The fossil record cannot show the exact age of the earth but it does have pretty good evidence that the Earth is older than 6000 years even if this creation is not.
 
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laptoppop

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Got a busy night, so this will be quick.

The Septuigant is cited as an example of how pre-Christ translators looked at Gen 1:1. During the time of Christ it was the definitive Greek translation. The New Testament OT quotes are virtually always (maybe always, but I don't know for sure) directly from the Septuigant. No one is suggesting that we shouldn't go to the Hebrew now for a translation source.

Regarding calm regions in a flood context: In a worldwide flood, we can expect a variety of sources for waves. Volcanos, earthquakes, etc. would each provide a source. The key thing to note is that as these waves collide, the height of the resulting wave is dependent on the phase variance of the source waves. Sometimes waves add constructively, producing greater waves, and sometimes they add destructively, canceling each other out and producing regions of calm.

The relatively recent tsunami in asia showed this action clearly with parts of the surrounding coastline suffering little or no damage, while other parts were terribly affected.

If we accept the other miracles around Noah, its is easy to see the ark sheltered in a region of relative calm.

The ark was also an amazingly stable boat. The dimensions of the boat were ideal for stability. http://www.worldwideflood.com/ark/safety_aig/safety_aig.htm
has one study of possible hull designs and their stability. Virtually all of the designs would be self-righting because of the dimensions. Some designs have been shown to be able to self-right themselves with up to 60 degrees of pitch.

I don't take Jasper as a source for truth, but certainly such a self-righting vessel could withstand a wave large enough to terrify the inhabitants. I also have no problem with the Lord calming the sea in an area, just as Jesus did.

Tar or pitch can be made from sources other than oil or coal. For example, the pre-petroleum industry in europe flourished making pitch from pine resin mixed with the charcoal of the burned trees. Here is one reference: http://www.answersingenesis.org/creation/v7/i1/noah.asp?vPrint=1
Here is another reference about the multiple types of pitch:
http://av1611.com/kjbp/ridiculous-kjv-bible-corrections/The-Pitch-of-Noahs-Ark.html
This one cites the Encyclopedia Brittanica as mentioning both coal tar pitch and wood tar pitch.

The ark was a huge vessel, not any toothpick. It is important to recognize the size and scope of the vessel. It is unclear if it was just Noah and his sons, or if he hired additional people. In some cases the amount of board feet required, etc. has been calculated, and it is believed that given *100 years* to work, Noah and his sons could have done the task.

We don't know exactly what "gopher wood" is, although many people have speculated. It is even possible that it was a particularly hard wood which became extinct after the flood -- we just don't know.

-lee-
 
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sjdennis

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Lion of God said:
According to YEC's the mountains were only around since the Flood 800 or so years previous while the Earth itself was supposedly about 2500 years old. The term "ancient" could not be considered appropriate from that perspective. The argument is valid since YEC's maintain that the strat that is on top of mountains was as a result of the mountains being raised after the Flood. The bible clearly contradicts that view from this term "ancient mountains" and Gen 7:19:
And the waters prevailed exceedingly upon the earth; and all the high mountains that were under the whole heaven were covered.
Which plainly says the mountains were already in existence at the beginning of the flood. It therefore requires YEC's to prove how how the strata and the fossils within it to have gotten on those mountains
ASSUMING the flood was global, the water would have covered all the earth. How could the water have subsided? The only way would be for the ocean basins to sink and the mountains rise up. This would have involved major changes in the mountains. The post-flood mountains would have been vastly different to the pre-flood mountains, and may be much higher than a "mountain" before the flood. The landscape today is completely different than that before the flood. Just because mountains existed before the flood does not mean that they were the same mountains.
edit: It appears according to another article that the original Septuagint was translated from the Hebrew texts but with the idea in mind of showing the Hebrew cosmonology as being similar with the Greek/Egyptian one at that time. Please refer to this page for a detailed explanation for why hâyâh was translated to the Greek "en" in this one single instance out of 23 in this chapter and what the motivation was behind the Septuagint translation.
http://www.creationdays.dk/withoutformandvoid/4.html
This is a theory based on pure speculation, and was coined by Custance in his book "without form and void". Custance KNEW that the translation of hayah as "en" contradicted the gap theory, and came up with a far-fetched theory as to why this might have occurred. This theory is PURE SPECULATION and exists ENTIRELY for the purpose of supporting the gap theory. There were two other points about the Septuagint translation I made in a previous post, that also clearly show the Septuagint translators did not allow room for a gap, whatever explanations are proposed for their translation of hayah.
 
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Rather interesting news story came up today on Yahoo and USA Today

http://www.usatoday.com/tech/science/discoveries/2006-06-01-israel-lost-world_x.htm

http://news.yahoo.com/s/ap/20060601/ap_on_sc/israel_lost_world

The basic idea of the story is that last month on May 26th scientists in Israel found a self-sustaining ecosystem in an isolated cave system that's been shut off from the outside world for millions of years. I think what's even more striking is the location of this find - Israel.

I think this story punches all sorts of holes in the global flood/young earth scenarios. So far they've found 8 new species of scorpion-like and shrimp-like creatures.

Found another interesting story on ScienceDaily -

http://www.sciencedaily.com/releases/2006/06/060601174729.htm

Apparently they also found the geological evidence of a meteor strike about 250 million years ago at the Permian-Triassic era border under the ice of Antarctica which wiped out 90% of marine species and 70 percent of terrestrial vertebrate species on earth and opened the way for the era of the dinosaurs.
 
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ChetSinger

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I take a wait-and-see attitude when "new findings" supposedly disprove a plain reading of Genesis. Given time and study, lots of supposedly bible-breaking discoveries have been fit into the YEC framework.

For example, we see that minor genetic drift can occur very quickly when organisms are isolated from their original population. There are supposedly mosquitoes in the London subway that have lost the ability to breed with surface mosquitoes after only about 100 years.
 
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laptoppop

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I'm not following here. To me, neither story does much to inform the discussion about old earth/young earth.

1) the sealed cave ecosystem -- totally cool! I love the variety of life that the Lord has made. I'm a bit saddened by one comment -- that they may have seriously damaged the ecosystem by introducing different air (oxygen) when they went in.

In any case, I don't see what this has to do with old earth/young earth. There are many articles about the flaws in any dating mechanism, so without more detail its hard to discuss the reported "age" of the finding. In fact, I think a powerful argument could be made that this finding actually supports the young earth / global flood view. Consider a pocket cave (YEC would say created by the flood) filled with animals that can create a symbiotic ecosystem. Is it more reasonable to believe that cave existed like this for a few thousand years or for millions of years?

2) The meteor could very well have been how the Lord punctured the water canopy of the earth and set off the global flood, as well as causing tectonic stress that opened the water from under the surface, etc. No problem here. Again, ages are dependent on the dating systems, and would require a lot more data to even start to discuss intelligently. One point of YECs like me is that there are known BIG problems with the various age determination techniques -- something commonly glossed over by the media and many scientists.
-lee-
 
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LoG

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laptoppop said:
Regarding calm regions in a flood context: In a worldwide flood, we can expect a variety of sources for waves. Volcanos, earthquakes, etc. would each provide a source. The key thing to note is that as these waves collide, the height of the resulting wave is dependent on the phase variance of the source waves. Sometimes waves add constructively, producing greater waves, and sometimes they add destructively, canceling each other out and producing regions of calm.

The relatively recent tsunami in asia showed this action clearly with parts of the surrounding coastline suffering little or no damage, while other parts were terribly affected.

Problem as I see it is that the wave action effects the surface of the water. A flood that covered the tops of the mountains would only have affected the ground underneath as the waters were rising.
The links you supplied pointed out that the Ark would have been in danger had the waves exceeded 47 meters. Waves much larger than that would have been required to account for the strata and other evidence as it is today. It would have required one Tsunami after another across the face the Earth, not a year long flood.
Tar or pitch can be made from sources other than oil or coal. For example, the pre-petroleum industry in europe flourished making pitch from pine resin mixed with the charcoal of the burned trees. Here is one reference:

Lol, just seeing if you were awake.
The ark was a huge vessel, not any toothpick. It is important to recognize the size and scope of the vessel. It is unclear if it was just Noah and his sons, or if he hired additional people. In some cases the amount of board feet required, etc. has been calculated, and it is believed that given *100 years* to work, Noah and his sons could have done the task.

According to Jasher it was completed in 5 years.
 
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