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That is my point, so far, I have not found anything that conflicts with history. Now I do not expect to find an actual mention of Japheth, so if you want to argue that the people were made up, we don't have any proof supporting that or disproving that. I haven't mentioned that sending out birds to find land is recorded in Sumerian records. Wine is also attested to be grown at that time.
Basically your statement that this is just a story comes down to belief.
You seem to be under the misapprehension that because I think it is "just a story" (a phrase I have not used) that I think it has no connection to history at all.
On the contrary, I have been affirming in the strongest possible terms that I recognize the high probability of connections to history in these stories.
But it is still the case that they are stories. The accuracies and parallels you mention are consistent with a story well-placed in its historical setting. We don't even need to suppose that the characters or places or events are all fictional, as good historical stories are often built around historical characters. Nevertheless, just as there is a difference between a biography of Julius Caesar and a drama about the death of Julius Caesar, there is a difference between a record of history and a story with historical roots in a historical setting.
So, I repeat, it is a matter of emphasis.
You want to emphasize the history we see in the story.
I am emphasizing that the history is given to us in a story, not a report.
The two emphases are perfectly compatible with each other.
Please recognize that I am not disputing your emphasis.
Hi...
Just wondering how many fellow TE'ers out there have moved away from the idea of a flood all together.
I recognise it as nothing but "true myth", to borrow the term from CS Lewis.
If I understand A.N.E. cosmology, the dome was solid, and there were waters above it. When the noahic flood happened, this dome literally broke (in other words, their entire universe shattered) and there was a global flood.
I think in proper context, that the way the bible describes the flood cannot be taken literally, and a "local flood" is just a wishy washy toned down literalism... and doesn't go far enough to solve the problems we have biblically with a large scale flood.
Can we just accept it as mythology and move on from here?
Thanks,I do recognize that. You are perfectly free to believe it is just a story, and I am free to think that it is actual history, since there is no proof either way that Noah existed, outside of the Bible.
Thank you for that. Similarly there is no proof either way that the Hierodule or Utnapishtim or Atrahasis existed outside of those respective texts.
For myself, I prefer not to identify a story as historical without positive evidence (which means extra-textual evidence) that it is. I am open to some or all of the story being history if there is sufficient evidence for that proposition, but I do not consider lack of evidence against that proposition sufficient to establish historicity.
I would also add that history or history-based story, it is still, in my view, inspired scripture with all the properties and functions Paul described in his letter to Timothy and to be respected as such.
There is no proof for Moses or David either
There is no proof for Moses or David either
Swordfall, I know that Moses an David existed. I was just pointing out the problem of the other persons logic. Despite all the supporting evidence valididating the story of Noah, the person decided He didn't exist, without a bit of evidence. Though I believed without the extra Biblical evidence, I researched Moses and have found much more evidence supporting him than others use.
My faith is not reliant on this, I use 1 John's test to know you are saved. I just enjoy confounding skeptics.
Why can't the accounts count as credibility?
Think about it- everything in history not recorded before the last thousand years is in parchment or stone. It's funny how one can accept entire histories based on such, but not a single measure of scripture and tradition.
Swordfall, I know that Moses an David existed. I was just pointing out the problem of the other persons logic. Despite all the supporting evidence valididating the story of Noah, the person decided He didn't exist, without a bit of evidence.
Actually, the point is to treat scripture on the same basis as other contemporaneous literature and to determine whether it is story or historical record or (as is often the case) a blend of both on the same basis as one would an account found in Ashurbanipal's library or Cheop's pyramid. So the biblical account of the flood counts toward credibility just as much as (but not more than) the similar account in the epic of Gilgamesh.
All of this (other than the inspiration of the Holy Spirit) is consistent with the same literary forms used by other cultures in the Ancient Near East. We attribute these stories to the inspiration of the Holy Spirit but that doesn't change their genre and method of narration. It doesn't change them into reportage like that of a journalist or historian.
No, it is cosmic in that it presents a destruction of "every living thing" on the face of the earth (or land). "He blotted out every living thing that was on the face of the ground, human beings and animals and creeping things and birds of the air; they were blotted out from the earth. Only Noah was left of those with him on the ark." Gen. 7:21
And later it traces all human peoples to Noah and his sons. There would be no point to those genealogies if the people formerly inhabiting those lands had not been completely destroyed and left no descendants.
In what sense? What do we have that tells us the intention of the story? Our best indication is Gen. 6:5 but that is part of the story too, so only provides the set up for the rest of the story.
Yes it does suggest the existence of civilizations. Right back in the story of Adam and Eve, you have reference to agriculture. Gen. 4:17 tells us that Cain founded a city and named it for his first son, Enoch. vs. 20-22 tells us of the three sons of Lamech who founded arts associated with civilization, including the use of bronze and iron. The flood story itself speaks of domesticated animals.
I did notice that in Peter, he said God created the earth (ge), God destroyed the earth (Cosmos) by the flood, and that He will destroy the earth (ge) by fire. Why, if the flood was worldwide, didn't he use the word ge? Instead he used cosmos, which means the organized world. Back at 3,000 BC, the only organized or civilized world was Sumer. They recorded a flood that destroyed all the major cities in 3,000 BC. If it was only Sumer that was destroyed, then only the domestic and wild animals of the flood plain would need rescuing, That would be a reasonable job. I see exact history. I understand that Glaudys says that I have no proof that Noah existed or that he planted a vineyard. I don't have any proof outside of the Bible, yet so many of the details are accurate, that I believe the rest. I pointed out that she doesn't have any way to prove any statement in the Bible about the flood is false, so her statements are pure belief.What literary form is it? Give an example of a pagan story in the same literary form.
That doesn't make it cosmic. It was an earthly event.
Maybe,but there is no way of knowing how extensively humans had spread throughout the earth before the flood. They may have only inhabited the Near East lands.
The writer did not give his intention. But the story cannot be a mere allegory or parable because there is nothing to indicate that it is. Allegories and parables in the Bible are not given as history,or without a context that indicates an allegory or a parable. If you say it is mythological history,that doesn't mean that it did not happen,because the God of the story is the one,true God,not a false pagan god,and he certainly could have made the flood happen. And pagan myths of origins were taken as histories,not as stories with a moral intention.
These things do not indicate a civilization such as Sumer.
Actually, the point is to treat scripture on the same basis as other contemporaneous literature and to determine whether it is story or historical record or (as is often the case) a blend of both on the same basis as one would an account found in Ashurbanipal's library or Cheop's pyramid. So the biblical account of the flood counts toward credibility just as much as (but not more than) the similar account in the epic of Gilgamesh.
What literary form is it? Give an example of a pagan story in the same literary form.
That doesn't make it cosmic. It was an earthly event.
Maybe,but there is no way of knowing how extensively humans had spread throughout the earth before the flood. They may have only inhabited the Near East lands.
But the story cannot be a mere allegory or parable because there is nothing to indicate that it is. Allegories and parables in the Bible are not given as history,or without a context that indicates an allegory or a parable.
If you say it is mythological history,that doesn't mean that it did not happen,
And pagan myths of origins were taken as histories,not as stories with a moral intention.
These things do not indicate a civilization such as Sumer.
The Romans and Greeks used that same logic to determine scripture. Believe it or not, that logic came long before you generation.
Already did. I think we have already mentioned Gilgamesh, Enuma Elish, Atrahasis--there are many more as well.
Cosmos refers to "world" not just heaven. Earth is part of the cosmos.
Sure there is: archeology and paleontology. We know humanity originated in Africa about 200,000 years ago and there have always been human populations in Africa ever since. We know they began spreading beyond Africa no later than 60,000 years ago, reached Australia over 30,000 years ago and began settling in the Americas around 20,000 years ago. But the earliest civilizations with major monuments can only be traced to about 10-15 thousand years ago. I don't know what date you propose for the flood, but it is a certainty that humans lived in all parts of the world at that time and most of them would not trace their ancestry back to Noah and his sons.
Who says? I don't accept rules of interpretation which are recent inventions to support one's preferred interpretation. In most cases, Jesus did not introduce a parable as a parable. Those indications, where they exist, were added later by the person writing the gospel. When Nathan used a parable to accuse David of adultery, he did not say it was a parable. He presented it as a case of theft and David assumed it was about an actual event until Nathan told him "You are the man."
So I have no reason to believe that there is always a signpost naming a parable or allegory as such.
That is what I have been saying. It could well have happened--as a local event. That doesn't make the scriptural account of it any less mythological. For the scriptural account does not present it as a local event but as an event affecting all creatures in whose nostrils was the breath of life. It presents Noah & family and the creatures with him as the only terrestrial survivors of the flood.
True. Another reason to understand the biblical accounts in the same way. There may well have been history (in some cases the same history) behind those accounts too. But we don't consider those stories to BE history as the original story-tellers did.
Shifting the goal posts.
Oh, by no means am I making any claim to originality. Allegorical interpretations of the bible are as old if not older than Christianity. We see a good deal of it in the New Testament. In fact, allegorical interpretations were seen as superior to literal interpretations pretty much up to the 17th century. Now we have a fetish of preferring literal interpretations even when they are not warranted.
We should probably aim for a good balance based on what both the textual and extra-textual evidence allows.
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