Cosmic Charlie said:
This is really the heart of the matter: I don't get this statement. Really. How is a sexual act that you know is not going to result in conception because of monitoring of the menstral cycle of the female considered "open to life" ?
How is knowingly avoiding sex during fertile times not breaking the unity/procreative bond ? (And so we're clear: the bond IMO is broken during the non-fertile times not the fertile times so please, no foregoing sex is good posts)
In good faith, this make no sense to me.
well lets try to contrast it - maybe that will help.
In judging the moral quality of any act, we must determe the object, intention, and circumstance.
In order the any act to be a morally good act, it must have been a good object, and good intention.
The object of sex has two aspects to it - that of unity and that of procreation.
If either of these aspects is not there, then the object is bad.
If someone rapes another, the sexual aspect of procreation may be present, but the aspect of unity is not, thus regardless of intention, the object is in itself bad.
If someone has sex but has used a contraceptive, the sexual aspect of unity may be there, however the sexual aspect of procreation is not, thus regardless of intention, the object is in itself bad.
If someone has sex, and has not taken any step to block the unity or the procreative aspect, then we can begin to look at the intention for moral quality.
If the intention now is that of removing the procreative aspect, or the unitive aspect, then we have a bad intention, thus the act is still a bad act.
Again, in order to be a good act, the object and intention must be good.
Did that help?