Nathan Rebukes David Question?

[DMMullinax]

Recently I was reading in II Samuel 12 where Nathan rebukes David for his sin of adultery and murder, as well as a few others. After the allegorical story, David sees how unjust he was and says "I have sinned against the LORD." Then Nathan immediately after says "The LORD also has put away your sin; you shall not die. Nevertheless, because by this deed you have utterly scorned the LORD the child who is born to you shall die."

I don't feel like the child is the scapegoat. But from the passage it doesn't sound like David has made a sacrifice for his sin yet. So what was the scapegoat for David's sin? It says God took away his sin, but He can't do that without a scapegoat. So I'm confused?

Can anyone clarify for me? This has bugged me all night.

 

[St_Worm2]

Recently I was reading in II Samuel 12 where Nathan rebukes David for his sin of adultery and murder, as well as a few others. After the allegorical story, David sees how unjust he was and says "I have sinned against the LORD." Then Nathan immediately after says "The LORD also has put away your sin; you shall not die. Nevertheless, because by this deed you have utterly scorned the LORD the child who is born to you shall die."

I don't feel like the child is the scapegoat. But from the passage it doesn't sound like David has made a sacrifice for his sin yet. So what was the scapegoat for David's sin? It says God took away his sin, but He can't do that without a scapegoat. So I'm confused?

Can anyone clarify for me? This has bugged me all night.

King David confessed and repented of his sin before the Lord and the Lord graciously forgave him, just as He does for us today. His true "Scapegoat" was the same as yours and mine.

Yours and His,
David

"It is impossible for the blood of bulls and goats
to take away sins"
Hebrews 10:4​

 

[DMMullinax]

King David confessed and repented of his sin before the Lord and the Lord graciously forgave him, just as He does for us today. His true "Scapegoat" was the same as yours and mine.

Yours and His,
David

"It is impossible for the blood of bulls and goats
to take away sins"
Hebrews 10:4​

But if Jesus hadn't died by this point, how was He the scapegoat? God couldn't just take away sin if people repented. Doesn't there have to be a sacrifice? Hence Jesus' death on the cross as our once-for-all scapegoat. For us now it was Jesus, but for David?

 

[FirenWater]

Unless you look at it as Jesus being the Lamb that was slain before the foundation of the world.

David's child (even one from his own bowels) was struck sick of the LORD, and then ofcourse Jesus who Himself bore "our sicknesses" as well. Upon whom was laid our sins.

 

[St_Worm2]

But if Jesus hadn't died by this point, how was He the scapegoat? God couldn't just take away sin if people repented. Doesn't there have to be a sacrifice? Hence Jesus' death on the cross as our once-for-all scapegoat. For us now it was Jesus, but for David?

We look back to our Redeemer, those in the OT looked ahead to theirs. The Scriptures tell us plainly that sins are never truly forgiven through the sacrifice of bulls and goats (Hebrews 10:4). How then do you believe people in OT were saved? Here's an article that may help a bit: HOW WERE PEOPLE SAVED BEFORE JESUS CAME?

--David

"All of us like sheep have gone astray,
each of us has turned to his own way;
But the Lord has caused the iniquity
of us all to fall on Him"
Isaiah 53:6​