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Even the Judean Pharisees had a hard time with the parables of JesusWhat happened in the interim? Jesus using parables, but they weren't yet written down.
Sola Scritpurists would be in there with the Pharisees, dismissing anything not 'written'.
Mmm, very good choice.Do you mean like Granny Smiths?
Well then you better keep the dictionary nearby LOLI've been googling this. Now I've got it
You're talking to a guy who's computer is so old it's coal-fired, and steam-powered.
Lots of outbacks, crocks, kangaroos, big knives and a spiffy accentNo apples in Australia?
What's the nice answer?
I'm not talking about 'the corpus of Scripture'.No, although God may ADD to His corpus of Scripture.
If you were God, perhaps you could, too.
But as you know, that issue is moot here. This thread is not about what is and is not Scripture or about why none on the planet agrees with your denomination on that issue - just itself exclusively.
As Jesus was doing ...There's modern-day Pharisees who would deny it unless it was written down.
Does Jesus not match all of these attributes?
Except Jesus didn't at all declare Himself to speak ANYthing except whatDoes Jesus not match all of these attributes? He declared himself to speak the Words of God, infallible (and I guess unaccountable) with undiminished POWER of GOD to require quiet and docile submission to WHATEVER he says, whether what he says is written down at the time or not? Is that not rejecting the Rule of Scripture? .
To the OP-
Video taped, photographed, or written, is probably the best way (for man) to preserve anything.
It's not hard to see that Oral Tradition cannot perfectly preserve doctrine, ask a RC, EO, OO, or LDS which is the true Oral Tradition...I agree.....
When I signed my lease for the apartment here, it is a WRITTEN DOCUMENT. In objective words, knowable to all and alterable by none. In it is a very interesting clause that reads, "This contract supersedes any other agreements - oral or otherwise - by either party." Written trumps oral.
God "wrote" morality in the 'hearts' of all people. Why, shortly after literacy come to the Hebrews, did God write the Ten Commandments - literally in stone? Why did the Hebrews point to THAT as the norma normans rather than the "hearts" of each individual? Just questions, I don't pretend to have a definitive answer to them....
But I do know this: When each individual (such as the RCC or LDS or Mary Baker Eddy or me) insists that what I "feel" or "think" supersedes (or is even equal) to what God wrote - Houston, we've got a problem! My study of the cults, of the early LDS (and yes - as a Catholic of my Church), I saw the consequence of this. But that's just MY perspective- nothing more.
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I agree.....
When I signed my lease for the apartment here, it is a WRITTEN DOCUMENT. In objective words, knowable to all and alterable by none. In it is a very interesting clause that reads, "This contract supersedes any other agreements - oral or otherwise - by either party." Written trumps oral.
God "wrote" morality in the 'hearts' of all people. Why, shortly after literacy come to the Hebrews, did God write the Ten Commandments - literally in stone? Why did the Hebrews point to THAT as the norma normans rather than the "hearts" of each individual? Just questions, I don't pretend to have a definitive answer to them....
But I do know this: When each individual (such as the RCC or LDS or Mary Baker Eddy or me) insists that what I "feel" or "think" supersedes (or is even equal) to what God wrote - Houston, we've got a problem! My study of the cults, of the early LDS (and yes - as a Catholic of my Church), I saw the consequence of this. But that's just MY perspective- nothing more.
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