- Feb 15, 2013
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This discussion has emerged here and there across a few different threads so I thought it would be fun to bring it out into the open.
Coming into this discussion it will be helpful to assume that moral concepts have some meaning to all of us. No matter what we believe about where morality comes from or whether or not we're moral realists, all of us deal with moral considerations and make moral judgements on a daily basis. If you disagree with this assumption then that can also be a fun conversation but it's probably best discussed in a different thread.
So we would all generally agree with many of the moral commands expressed in the 10 commandments - at least their moral validity. Stealing is wrong. Murder is wrong. Lying is wrong. Violating promises is wrong. But what is the justification of such moral claims? Where do they get their authority from?
I'd like to say here, representing Hume's Is/Ought problem, that moral sentiment cannot be derived from rationality alone. Reason is certainly useful in applying moral norms (that we already have) to various situations. Reason is also useful for discerning inconsistencies in our moral systems. But values cannot be derived from reason alone. Reason and morality interact, but one is not derived from the other.
Hume's Is/Ought problem is one way of defending this assertion. Basically Hume tried to demonstrate that in order to have a moral conclusion, one needed a moral premise. In other words, an "ought" statement cannot logically be derived from an "is" statement. This often occurs in moral arguments, though. Here's an example of an invalid argument that commit's Hume's Is/Ought fallacy.
1. Stealing harms people
2. Internet piracy is stealing
3. Therefore we ought not pirate materials from the internet
Now whether or not you agree with the soundness of this argument is another thing. But even if this argument is sound it is technically invalid. Since there is no "ought" in the premises there can be no "ought" in the conclusion. Of course, you could say that there is an implicit "ought" in the premises and redesign the argument to go like this:
1. Stealing harms people
2. We ought not harm people
3. Internet piracy is stealing
4. Therefore we ought not pirate materials from the internet
Now this argument is indeed valid, but notice that there's a moral sentiment in the premises. We're assuming morality in order to prove morality. This goes to show that morality is simply there. We reason with it, but we cannot derive it from reason alone.
Some, in defense of a rationalistic approach to morality, have tried to suggest that morality comes from our goals and can be rationally derived from our goals. In other words, if we want to live a long life then we ought to behave in a certain way. The imperatives are authoritative because they're based on desires and goals that we actually hold. We can then use reason to determine how to best meet these goals. And this becomes our morality.
But this is an unsatisfying account. As Wittgenstein noted in his famous lecture on ethics, some "ought" claims are clearly hypothetically imperative. If I notice that you're a horrible tennis player and I say: "you really ought to practice more often", you can easily escape the imperative statement by saying: "but I don't really care about being a better tennis player." But this does not seem to be the case with moral claims. If you're a liar and I say: "you really ought to tell the truth" you cannot escape the imperative by saying: "but I don't really care about being a moral person!" In the second scenario it stills seems that you ought to care about being a moral person. The imperative still seems authoritative in spite of your goals (or lack-thereof).
So what this all adds up to is that morality is clearly part of our lives, but it cannot be derived from reason. It's already there and we reason from it.
Coming into this discussion it will be helpful to assume that moral concepts have some meaning to all of us. No matter what we believe about where morality comes from or whether or not we're moral realists, all of us deal with moral considerations and make moral judgements on a daily basis. If you disagree with this assumption then that can also be a fun conversation but it's probably best discussed in a different thread.
So we would all generally agree with many of the moral commands expressed in the 10 commandments - at least their moral validity. Stealing is wrong. Murder is wrong. Lying is wrong. Violating promises is wrong. But what is the justification of such moral claims? Where do they get their authority from?
I'd like to say here, representing Hume's Is/Ought problem, that moral sentiment cannot be derived from rationality alone. Reason is certainly useful in applying moral norms (that we already have) to various situations. Reason is also useful for discerning inconsistencies in our moral systems. But values cannot be derived from reason alone. Reason and morality interact, but one is not derived from the other.
Hume's Is/Ought problem is one way of defending this assertion. Basically Hume tried to demonstrate that in order to have a moral conclusion, one needed a moral premise. In other words, an "ought" statement cannot logically be derived from an "is" statement. This often occurs in moral arguments, though. Here's an example of an invalid argument that commit's Hume's Is/Ought fallacy.
1. Stealing harms people
2. Internet piracy is stealing
3. Therefore we ought not pirate materials from the internet
Now whether or not you agree with the soundness of this argument is another thing. But even if this argument is sound it is technically invalid. Since there is no "ought" in the premises there can be no "ought" in the conclusion. Of course, you could say that there is an implicit "ought" in the premises and redesign the argument to go like this:
1. Stealing harms people
2. We ought not harm people
3. Internet piracy is stealing
4. Therefore we ought not pirate materials from the internet
Now this argument is indeed valid, but notice that there's a moral sentiment in the premises. We're assuming morality in order to prove morality. This goes to show that morality is simply there. We reason with it, but we cannot derive it from reason alone.
Some, in defense of a rationalistic approach to morality, have tried to suggest that morality comes from our goals and can be rationally derived from our goals. In other words, if we want to live a long life then we ought to behave in a certain way. The imperatives are authoritative because they're based on desires and goals that we actually hold. We can then use reason to determine how to best meet these goals. And this becomes our morality.
But this is an unsatisfying account. As Wittgenstein noted in his famous lecture on ethics, some "ought" claims are clearly hypothetically imperative. If I notice that you're a horrible tennis player and I say: "you really ought to practice more often", you can easily escape the imperative statement by saying: "but I don't really care about being a better tennis player." But this does not seem to be the case with moral claims. If you're a liar and I say: "you really ought to tell the truth" you cannot escape the imperative by saying: "but I don't really care about being a moral person!" In the second scenario it stills seems that you ought to care about being a moral person. The imperative still seems authoritative in spite of your goals (or lack-thereof).
So what this all adds up to is that morality is clearly part of our lives, but it cannot be derived from reason. It's already there and we reason from it.