Hi Christians,
It's your friendly neighbourhood atheist again. Awhile ago I posted a thread about Matthew 5 and how Jesus seemed to be commanding that we should all be following the OT laws. Not as a salvific imperative but rather simply out of obedience to His command.
I got some great responses that resolved into a few main lines of discussion.
1. That's the OT, and Jesus came to fulfill the law, meaning we don't need to follow it anymore.
1a. I was not terribly convinced because in the passage Jesus says the exact opposite.
2. The law is summed up by love God and love your neighbor and so any act that doesn't fit with their understanding of those two summary commands must be in contradiction of the law and so not apply today.
2a. This is unconvincing because Jesus says to obey all the specific commands of the law.
3. Jesus was talking to a Jewish audience and meant it for them not for the gentile.
3a. This was much more compelling and gave me a lot to think about. It will also serve as the starting point for my main question in this thread.
Our new question:
If God does intend for one people group to follow the law until heaven and earth pass away, no matter who it is, He would be commanding the killing of spiritualists, sanctioning some form of slavery, the stoning to death of a few groups of people etc. Even if this doesn't apply to the majority of the world today, how is this moral?
Looking forward to your thoughts as always.
Peace
Athée
It's your friendly neighbourhood atheist again. Awhile ago I posted a thread about Matthew 5 and how Jesus seemed to be commanding that we should all be following the OT laws. Not as a salvific imperative but rather simply out of obedience to His command.
I got some great responses that resolved into a few main lines of discussion.
1. That's the OT, and Jesus came to fulfill the law, meaning we don't need to follow it anymore.
1a. I was not terribly convinced because in the passage Jesus says the exact opposite.
2. The law is summed up by love God and love your neighbor and so any act that doesn't fit with their understanding of those two summary commands must be in contradiction of the law and so not apply today.
2a. This is unconvincing because Jesus says to obey all the specific commands of the law.
3. Jesus was talking to a Jewish audience and meant it for them not for the gentile.
3a. This was much more compelling and gave me a lot to think about. It will also serve as the starting point for my main question in this thread.
Our new question:
If God does intend for one people group to follow the law until heaven and earth pass away, no matter who it is, He would be commanding the killing of spiritualists, sanctioning some form of slavery, the stoning to death of a few groups of people etc. Even if this doesn't apply to the majority of the world today, how is this moral?
Looking forward to your thoughts as always.
Peace
Athée