cvanwey
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- May 10, 2018
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We seem to have a misunderstanding here, cvanwey. Let's begin with the basics: THIS IS MY OP THREAD; NOT YOURS! You don't get to come into this conversation and try to 'turn' the thrust of the inquiry back upon me and thus skip around the fact that I have already laid out in the OP that 1) this thread is for YOU or anyone else to present your reasons for how, when and why you think you have the right to feel moral outrage or righteous indignation. You haven't yet done this.
2) My OP isn't predicated upon a biblical stance; rather, it's simply predicated upon the idea that we can enter into a bilateral discussion here about those issues that pertain to how, when, and why people feel moments of moral outrage?
If you want me to deconstruct and hermeneutically analyze the epistemic qualities expressed in Proverbs 30:5, that's not going to happen here in the specific thread. Are we clear?!
I mean, if we're going to go about this attempt at a discussion, and if I allow you to begin interacting in this discussion as if it is a 'stump the professor' game, then we won't really get anywhere, will we? If I wanted to play this discussion as a game where I try to push my interlocuting opponent to the edge so that I can try to tear off the mask which I suspect is being worn by my opponent, then I could just pull up out the current JUNE 2018 issue of Commentary magazine, look at the cover story and wonder if all that kind of thing applies somehow to you in the expression of your questions and in the intentions behind them here on CF. But, I won't do that.................
Skeptics, non-believers, atheists, etc, cannot logically appeal to an 'absolute standard' for moral values and duties. On the other hand, theists do. I would assume you are a Christian, based upon your profile and statements. Where else might you get your 'absolute moral foundations,' aside from the Bible? For theists, the conclusion appears very simple. It is either from the Bible, or their brain (which is thought that the cognitive conclusions are controlled by the ultimate claimed organized transcendent mind), and the brain may disagree with the Bible in some aspects....
If you are wanting to navigate a very specific direction, that's fine. I am not trying to take over the thread I'm not trying to 'hornswoggle' you, 'stump' you, or other.
I cannot help to mention the Bible, along with it's pronouncements, assertions, and tenets, as the Bible is the claimed and asserted absolute moral foundation for such values and duties.
Without referencing the Bible, what foundation for moral conclusions may the Christian (i.e. you) use? If (you) do not draw upon, or conclude upon, the Bible, then I guess you are stating your opinions; based upon enlightenment, evidence, and continued discovery, is just like any other non-believer.
But then I must ask... Why are you then a Christian? (rhetorical question really, as I do not want to 'hi-jack' the OP)
If you do not care to engage, that's fine, this is your post; have at it
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But I do feel below remains within the direct scope of your OP, if you have more to add:
So to recap, the 'moral outrage' stems from the fact that slavery, anti-homosexuality, and women's inequality, (all once legal in America), could have all been further justified and continued as legal, using and referencing verses from the Bible itself. This appears to be in direct conflict with some of God's claimed attributes.
Peace
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