- Jan 9, 2021
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There is an itching question I need to ponder. I want to quote an argument from a cited source...
"
(1) Moral law implies a Moral Lawgiver.
(2) There is an objective moral law.
(3) Therefore, there is an objective Moral Lawgiver.
"
Geisler, N. L. (2002). Systematic theology, volume one: introduction, Bible (p. 36). Minneapolis, MN: Bethany House Publishers.
Throughout human history, there have been advances in civilization, quality of life, technology, and probably morality. Most of these at least, especially technology, have come about by intellectual efforts. If technology can be advanced via intellectual creativity and effort, why does human morality rely on God to advance? Why can't humans via their own creativity have advanced morality like technology?
I am a Christian and believe in an absolute moral standard by God, but perhaps too the same is with technology, yet clearly technology has come from the workings of the human mind and not Holy writ.
"
(1) Moral law implies a Moral Lawgiver.
(2) There is an objective moral law.
(3) Therefore, there is an objective Moral Lawgiver.
"
Geisler, N. L. (2002). Systematic theology, volume one: introduction, Bible (p. 36). Minneapolis, MN: Bethany House Publishers.
Throughout human history, there have been advances in civilization, quality of life, technology, and probably morality. Most of these at least, especially technology, have come about by intellectual efforts. If technology can be advanced via intellectual creativity and effort, why does human morality rely on God to advance? Why can't humans via their own creativity have advanced morality like technology?
I am a Christian and believe in an absolute moral standard by God, but perhaps too the same is with technology, yet clearly technology has come from the workings of the human mind and not Holy writ.