Mistranslation or misunderstanding?

[Apodictic]

Hello everyone,

I have a question regarding the translation of the Bible from Greek to English. First let me lay down the context of my question:

2 Corinthians 4:4
The god of this age has blinded the minds of unbelievers, so that they cannot see the light of the gospel of the glory of Christ, who is the image of God.

This passage is referring to satan as being the god of this age/world (Depending on translation).

Further context and explanation of above verse :
http://www.gotquestions.org/Satan-god-world.html

The Greek word used in this verse for satan's title is θεος . Remember this.

Additionally note that God is mentioned at the end of this verse with the Greek word θεου.

Further information on the Greek:
http://scripturetext.com/2_corinthians/4-4.htm

One of the most famous verses used to show the trinity, more importantly Jesus's divine nature, in Christian Scripture is John 1:1

John 1:1
In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

The interpretation is quite simple when reading the English. Jesus is the Word. The Word is God. Therefore Jesus is God. Sounds good when reading the English, but what about the Greek?

The first mention of God as in "[...] was with God,[...]" uses the word θεον whereas the second mention as in "[...] and the Word was God" uses the word θεος . Hopefully this word looks familiar, because it is the word I ask of you to remember earlier on. The same word for the "god title" given to satan. Yet one verse about satan translates the word as lower case, and the other about Jesus in upper case.

Further information on the Greek:
http://scripturetext.com/john/1-1.htm

To further fortify this problem, look at another verse closely following the mentioned Scripture from John:

John 1:6
There came a man who was sent from God; his name was John.

The Greek word used here is again θεου.

Further information on the Greek:
http://scripturetext.com/john/1-6.htm

So my question is simple. What justification do the translator(s) have for picking the case of the word "god" or "God" in English? We all are well aware that the upper case "God" in English is meant to mean God Almighty. Whereas lower case indicates a title.

Granted, I am aware that the lexicon gives the same definition for all these words. But the selection of words was deliberate by the author of the gospel. And from my view, for a translator(s) to ignore those deliberate choices is reason for suspicion.

God Bless and thanks in advance for responses addressing my concern!

 

[drich0150]

I'm referencing a 1975 Zondervan's "A Critical Lexicon and Concordance to the English and Greek New Testament."

In 2Co.4:4 Oeos' is used to describe "The God of this Age." Which is used to describe a Demon, subordinate divinity or "Other god."


Oeo's is what my lexicon/concordance says was used in John 1:1 The letters are the same as the word for demon or "other gods" but the accent mark is over the "o" instead of the "s".

According to my concordance:
{In classic Greek, these words (Oeo's and Oeos') were originally the same "Oeo's", God, but in what sense is not certain. From Homer downwards they answered to the Latin numen, and denoted a general Divine agency, the working of a higher power, and later it became known as the working of a destructive power. In the Septuagint, "Saiuo'viov," is used in a bad sense, and in contrast to Oeo's, God.}

 

[Apodictic]

I'm referencing a 1975 Zondervan's "A Critical Lexicon and Concordance to the English and Greek New Testament."

In 2Co.4:4 Oeos' is used to describe "The God of this Age." Which is used to describe a Demon, subordinate divinity or "Other god."


Oeo's is what my lexicon/concordance says was used in John 1:1 The letters are the same as the word for demon or "other gods" but the accent mark is over the "o" instead of the "s".

According to my concordance:
{In classic Greek, these words (Oeo's and Oeos') were originally the same "Oeo's", God, but in what sense is not certain. From Homer downwards they answered to the Latin numen, and denoted a general Divine agency, the working of a higher power, and later it became known as the working of a destructive power. In the Septuagint, "Saiuo'viov," is used in a bad sense, and in contrast to Oeo's, God.}

Thanks for your response. I believe the context is the answer to the translation. Yet, given the context of John 1:1 I can simply not see that second mention of "God/god" as being the almighty. This thread is no meant to argue the interpretation of Scripture, so I will leave it at that. I feel the trinity mindset results in the translation.

 

[JohnDB]

You are talking about the Greek Letter "Theta" which makes the same sound as the "TH" consonant blend in english...the same sound as in the word "the".

And since there are no punctuation marks in Greek...those scholars which can read it have done a good job with great reverence for the text.
John's wordplay on the use of the word "word" is unique and tremendous all at the same time. There is an old old thing similar to an incantation which takes some of the life force of the speaker of the incantation called a "wurd" (I don't know how to put the two dots over the U)...that is along the same lines as to what John is referring to.
Meaning that the Word is Jesus and Jesus is God...all three are similar and made out of the very same stuff. I am not saying that your bible is God...but the writing there very much has the Spirit of God within it's intent: knowing one is like knowing the other.

 

[Apodictic]

You are talking about the Greek Letter "Theta" which makes the same sound as the "TH" consonant blend in english...the same sound as in the word "the".

And since there are no punctuation marks in Greek...those scholars which can read it have done a good job with great reverence for the text.
John's wordplay on the use of the word "word" is unique and tremendous all at the same time. There is an old old thing similar to an incantation which takes some of the life force of the speaker of the incantation called a "wurd" (I don't know how to put the two dots over the U)...that is along the same lines as to what John is referring to.
Meaning that the Word is Jesus and Jesus is God...all three are similar and made out of the very same stuff. I am not saying that your bible is God...but the writing there very much has the Spirit of God within it's intent: knowing one is like knowing the other.

I am talking about this:
John 1:1
Ἐν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ λόγος, καὶ ὁ λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν θεόν, καὶ θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος.

The first "god" has a definite article "τὸν" meaning "the". The second "god" has no definite article. Yet in English both are translated as "God" meaning God Almighty. I find this dishonest and find no reason to feel otherwise. No one has explained to me why the article was omitted on the second "god". When I say no one, keep in mind I have on the order of four threads on this forum alone in different places, no valid explaination of why the article is missing.

 

[LittleLambofJesus]

2 Corinthians 4:4
The god of this age has blinded the minds of unbelievers, so that they cannot see the light of the gospel of the glory of Christ, who is the image of God.

This passage is referring to satan as being the god of this age/world (Depending on translation).

It seems there is also an article before God in this verse. Interesting. [this greek/english interlinear is very good for looking up exact word forms of both the hebrew and greek]. Thoughst?

http://www.scripture4all.org/

2 Corinthians 4:4 In whom the god of the Age/aiwnoV <165>, this, hath-blinded the minds of the faithless into the no to shine forth to-them the enlightening of the Good-News of the glory of the Christ, who is an image/eikwn <1504> of-the God

http://www.greeknewtestament.com/index.htm

Textus Rec.) 2 Corinthians 4:4 en oiV o qeoV tou aiwnoV toutou etuflwsen ta nohmata twn apistwn eiV to mh augasai autoiV ton fwtismon tou euaggeliou thV doxhV tou cristou oV estin eikwn tou qeou

 

[Apodictic]

It seems there is also an article before God in this verse. Interesting. [this greek/english interlinear is very good for looking up exact word forms of both the hebrew and greek]. Thoughst?

http://www.scripture4all.org/

2 Corinthians 4:4 In whom the god of the Age/aiwnoV <165>, this, hath-blinded the minds of the faithless into the no to shine forth to-them the enlightening of the Good-News of the glory of the Christ, who is an image/eikwn <1504> of-the God

http://www.greeknewtestament.com/index.htm

Textus Rec.) 2 Corinthians 4:4 en oiV o qeoV tou aiwnoV toutou etuflwsen ta nohmata twn apistwn eiV to mh augasai autoiV ton fwtismon tou euaggeliou thV doxhV tou cristou oV estin eikwn tou qeou

Yes (or not transliterated version):

2 Corinthians 4:4
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Red for satan, blue for God. Both have definite articles. They use different articles simply to conform to grammar rules, the word "god" used for satan is in the nominative case, the one used for God Almighty the genetive case. But the meaning of the words on a fundamental level is the same.

So the question arises, how does the reader know whether the author is talking about God Almighty or is simply giving a title to someone other then God Almighty.

I am currently investigating this question by analyzing 1317 occurences of the greek word meaning:

Of uncertain affinity; a deity, especially (with ho) the supreme Divinity; figuratively, a magistrate; by Hebraism, very -- X exceeding, God, god(-ly, -ward).

Source
http://strongsnumbers.com/greek/2316.htm

That means I am looking at approximately 1317 verses containing these words. I say approximately, because some verses include more than one occurence. Once I finish my analysis I will make a new thread about it. Anyone curious will find a link to the new thread in all my threads on this topic.

Of course my analysis will be my opinion on the subject matter, because after all this topic is all about interpretation. But I will be consistent throughout, which is the difference between my methodology and methodology currently under use. In order to be consistent I must test my hypothesis on what dictates a mention of God Almighty. The test is simple. I dictate a standard and then apply it throughout the 1317 occurences. If my standard creates a problem in the Scripture, then the standard is false. Back to the drawing board and a new standard, until I find a standard that works consistently throughout and makes sense in all 1317 cases. Then I have found my solution, the truth.

You can see this will take some time.

 

[heron]

That is a perfect icon for your posts. I enjoy reading them.