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Matthew 7:21 question

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(Mat 7:21) Not everyone who says to me, ‘Lord, Lord,’ will enter the kingdom of heaven, but only the one who does the will of my Father who is in heaven.

What is the will of the Father in heaven?

(John 6:29) Jesus answered, “The work of God is this: to believe in the one he has sent.

Question: If doing the will of the Father is to believe on Jesus, then why is Jesus telling people, who call Him Lord, to depart? Wouldn't this indicate that they believed in Jesus if they're calling Him Lord? What is the will of the Father in heaven if not faith in the gospel? Is it evangelism? Thoughts?
 

Soyeong

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(Mat 7:21) Not everyone who says to me, ‘Lord, Lord,’ will enter the kingdom of heaven, but only the one who does the will of my Father who is in heaven.

What is the will of the Father in heaven?

(John 6:29) Jesus answered, “The work of God is this: to believe in the one he has sent.

Question: If doing the will of the Father is to believe on Jesus, then why is Jesus telling people, who call Him Lord, to depart? Wouldn't this indicate that they believed in Jesus if they're calling Him Lord? What is the will of the Father in heaven if not faith in the gospel? Is it evangelism? Thoughts?

The Father has straightforwardly made His will known through what He has commanded (Psalms 40:8), though the parallel statement in Matthew 7:22-23 of Jesus saying that he would tell those who are workers of lawlessness to depart from him because he never knew them also makes it clear that the way to do the Father's will is by obeying His law. In Luke 6:46, Jesus also asked why they called him Lord but did not do what he said. Furthermore, Jesus us God's word made flesh, so obedience to God's word is the way to believe in the one that He has sent. In Matthew 4:17-23, Jesus began his ministry with the Gospel message to repent for the Kingdom of God is at hand, and God's law was how his audience knew what sin is, so again obedience to it is the way to have faith in the Gospel.
 
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Guojing

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(Mat 7:21) Not everyone who says to me, ‘Lord, Lord,’ will enter the kingdom of heaven, but only the one who does the will of my Father who is in heaven.

What is the will of the Father in heaven?

(John 6:29) Jesus answered, “The work of God is this: to believe in the one he has sent.

Question: If doing the will of the Father is to believe on Jesus, then why is Jesus telling people, who call Him Lord, to depart? Wouldn't this indicate that they believed in Jesus if they're calling Him Lord? What is the will of the Father in heaven if not faith in the gospel? Is it evangelism? Thoughts?

So many Christians take John 6:29 out of context and assumes it means the same as what Paul is stating in Romans 4:5, that salvation is just to believe and nothing else.

In John, work always refer to signs and wonders. When Jesus performs those works, those signs and wonders, Israel is supposed to show their faith by believing that Jesus is their promised son of God. That is what John 6:29 meant.

It does not mean, "Whopee, I no longer need to follow the Law of Moses or endure to the end" etc etc.
 
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(Mat 7:21) Not everyone who says to me, ‘Lord, Lord,’ will enter the kingdom of heaven, but only the one who does the will of my Father who is in heaven.

What is the will of the Father in heaven?

(John 6:29) Jesus answered, “The work of God is this: to believe in the one he has sent.

Question: If doing the will of the Father is to believe on Jesus, then why is Jesus telling people, who call Him Lord, to depart? Wouldn't this indicate that they believed in Jesus if they're calling Him Lord? What is the will of the Father in heaven if not faith in the gospel? Is it evangelism? Thoughts?

I think there is a tendency to reduce "faith in the gospel" to mere belief that it's true. Even in the Gospel of John such a reduction is not warranted. In that gospel, which talks about belief more than the synoptics, Jesus is clear that belief in him is a matter of abiding in him through obeying his commandment to love as he loves us (see John 15). Or consider 1 John 3:23 where we are told that God's commandment is to believe in the Son and love one another. I think as modern readers of the NT we are at a disadvantage because we tend to think of belief as a matter of intellectual assent to a truth claim. But to "believe in" is more than a mere intellectual assent. It is a matter of trust and commitment. To "believe in" Christ means I trust him and am committed to following him and his way of life. Hence the use of "abiding" in both the Gospel of John and 1 John.
 
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Matt5

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(Mat 7:21) Not everyone who says to me, ‘Lord, Lord,’ will enter the kingdom of heaven, but only the one who does the will of my Father who is in heaven.

What is the will of the Father in heaven?

(John 6:29) Jesus answered, “The work of God is this: to believe in the one he has sent.

Question: If doing the will of the Father is to believe on Jesus, then why is Jesus telling people, who call Him Lord, to depart? Wouldn't this indicate that they believed in Jesus if they're calling Him Lord? What is the will of the Father in heaven if not faith in the gospel? Is it evangelism? Thoughts?

Concerning Matthew 7:21, those Christians believed the fake Jesus (false prophet) and took the mark.

If you don't even know a fake Jesus from the real one then you should be in trouble.

We see similar language here:

Matthew 25: 11 “Afterward the other virgins came also, saying, ‘Lord, Lord, open to us!’ 12 But he answered and said, ‘Assuredly, I say to you, I do not know you.’

They took the mark too. That's what the parable of the wise and foolish virgins is about - the fake Jesus and the mark.

Matthew 25:31-46 is about the judgement of those who took the mark.

Just for reference, the fake Jesus and Antichrist are demons in human form.
 
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Danthemailman

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(Mat 7:21) Not everyone who says to me, ‘Lord, Lord,’ will enter the kingdom of heaven, but only the one who does the will of my Father who is in heaven.

What is the will of the Father in heaven?

(John 6:29) Jesus answered, “The work of God is this: to believe in the one he has sent.

Question: If doing the will of the Father is to believe on Jesus, then why is Jesus telling people, who call Him Lord, to depart? Wouldn't this indicate that they believed in Jesus if they're calling Him Lord? What is the will of the Father in heaven if not faith in the gospel? Is it evangelism? Thoughts?
John 6:40 - For my Father’s will is that everyone who looks to the Son and believes in him shall have eternal life, and I will raise them up at the last day. Jesus never knew these many people in Matthew 7:22-23 which means they were never saved. Calling Him 'Lord' was merely 'lip service' for these pseudo Christians.
 
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Emun

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(Mat 7:21) Not everyone who says to me, ‘Lord, Lord,’ will enter the kingdom of heaven, but only the one who does the will of my Father who is in heaven.

What is the will of the Father in heaven?

(John 6:29) Jesus answered, “The work of God is this: to believe in the one he has sent.

Question: If doing the will of the Father is to believe on Jesus, then why is Jesus telling people, who call Him Lord, to depart? Wouldn't this indicate that they believed in Jesus if they're calling Him Lord? What is the will of the Father in heaven if not faith in the gospel? Is it evangelism? Thoughts?
No, they never believed. They were never Christians. Believing in Jesus means following his word. An example: His word says you shall not worship idols. Now there are "Christians" who worship idols. They do not listen, they resist. And when you point it out to them, they remain stubborn.

The doctrine of Sola Fide, that is, we are saved by faith alone and without works, is true. But that does not mean that you can simply ignore God's word. The criminal on the cross also did no works, he was not even baptized. But he believed and God who knows hearts saw his true faith. Therefore, he will be in paradise and receive the same reward as any other Christian.
 
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Maria Billingsley

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(Mat 7:21) Not everyone who says to me, ‘Lord, Lord,’ will enter the kingdom of heaven, but only the one who does the will of my Father who is in heaven.

What is the will of the Father in heaven?

(John 6:29) Jesus answered, “The work of God is this: to believe in the one he has sent.

Question: If doing the will of the Father is to believe on Jesus, then why is Jesus telling people, who call Him Lord, to depart? Wouldn't this indicate that they believed in Jesus if they're calling Him Lord? What is the will of the Father in heaven if not faith in the gospel? Is it evangelism? Thoughts?
They speak the words of belief but in their hearts they do not.
Blessings
 
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John 6:40 - For my Father’s will is that everyone who looks to the Son and believes in him shall have eternal life, and I will raise them up at the last day. Jesus never knew these many people in Matthew 7:22-23 which means they were never saved. Calling Him 'Lord' was merely 'lip service' for these pseudo Christians.

No, they never believed. They were never Christians. Believing in Jesus means following his word. An example: His word says you shall not worship idols. Now there are "Christians" who worship idols. They do not listen, they resist. And when you point it out to them, they remain stubborn.

The doctrine of Sola Fide, that is, we are saved by faith alone and without works, is true. But that does not mean that you can simply ignore God's word. The criminal on the cross also did no works, he was not even baptized. But he believed and God who knows hearts saw his true faith. Therefore, he will be in paradise and receive the same reward as any other Christian.
Okay but what I dont get is that these people the Lord rejects clearly did believe in Him. They even had ministries "in His name"
 
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Danthemailman

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Okay but what I dont get is that these people the Lord rejects clearly did believe in Him. They even had ministries "in His name"
They obviously believed in the existence of Christ, but they did not believe in Him unto salvation. (John 17:3; Acts 16:31) There are plenty of false religions and cults that have ministries "in His name."
 
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FutureAndAHope

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(Mat 7:21) Not everyone who says to me, ‘Lord, Lord,’ will enter the kingdom of heaven, but only the one who does the will of my Father who is in heaven.

What is the will of the Father in heaven?

(John 6:29) Jesus answered, “The work of God is this: to believe in the one he has sent.

Question: If doing the will of the Father is to believe on Jesus, then why is Jesus telling people, who call Him Lord, to depart? Wouldn't this indicate that they believed in Jesus if they're calling Him Lord? What is the will of the Father in heaven if not faith in the gospel? Is it evangelism? Thoughts?
I believe Jesus is talking about general obedience to the commands in the law and the prophets.

Mat 5:17-20 "Do not think that I came to destroy the Law or the Prophets. I did not come to destroy but to fulfill. For assuredly, I say to you, till heaven and earth pass away, one jot or one tittle will by no means pass from the law till all is fulfilled. Whoever therefore breaks one of the least of these commandments, and teaches men so, shall be called least in the kingdom of heaven; but whoever does and teaches them, he shall be called great in the kingdom of heaven. For I say to you, that unless your righteousness exceeds the righteousness of the scribes and Pharisees, you will by no means enter the kingdom of heaven.

Salvation gives us the Holy Spirit, who imparts in us a desire to keep God's commands.

1Jn 3:6 Whoever abides in Him does not sin. Whoever sins has neither seen Him nor known Him.
 
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Soyeong

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Okay but what I dont get is that these people the Lord rejects clearly did believe in Him. They even had ministries "in His name"

The way to believe in God is through expressing aspects of His nature, so when we do good works in obedience to His law, we are believing in His goodness. However, God's law can be obeyed while neglecting to express aspects of His nature, and thus miss the whole goal of the law. For example, in Matthew 23:23, Jesus said that tithing was something that they ought to be doing, but not while neglecting weightier matters of the law of justice, mercy, and faithfulness. So people can still be doing good works in God's name while not believing aspects of His nature like justice, mercy, and faithfulness, or in other words, not believing in Him. The way to know God is through expressing aspects of His nature, which is why Jesus said in Matthew 7:21-23 that he would tell those who are workers of lawlessness to depart because he never knew them, so they were missing the goal of the law.

In Romans 9:30-10:4, they had a zeal for God, but it was not based on knowing Him, so they failed to attain righteousness because they pursued the law as through righteousness were by works in an effort to earn their own rather than pursuing the law as through righteousness were by faith in Christ, for knowing Christ is the goal of the law for righteousness for everyone who has faith. In Philippians 3:8, Paul had been in the same boat, where he had been obeying the law, but not without having a focus of knowing Christ, so he had bee missing the whole goal of the law and counted it all as rubbish.
 
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In Romans 9:30-10:4, they had a zeal for God, but it was not based on knowing Him, so they failed to attain righteousness because they pursued the law as through righteousness were by works in an effort to earn their own rather than pursuing the law as through righteousness were by faith in Christ, for knowing Christ is the goal of the law for righteousness for everyone who has faith. In Philippians 3:8, Paul had been in the same boat, where he had been obeying the law, but not without having a focus of knowing Christ, so he had bee missing the whole goal of the law and counted it all as rubbish

I find this very confusing and even self-contradictory, when we consider that Jesus tells them to depart because they were "workers of lawlessness"
 
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Soyeong

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I find this very confusing and even self-contradictory, when we consider that Jesus tells them to depart because they were "workers of lawlessness"

Sorry for not being clear.

They were doing good things in God's name, yet they were still considered to be workers of lawlessness, so something was wrong with what they were doing, which is similar to what Jesus said in Matthew 23:23, where they were tithing, but they were neglecting weightier matters of the law of justice, mercy, and faithfulness. The Bible often uses the same terms to describe aspects of the nature of God as it does to describe aspects of the nature of God's law, such as with it being holy, righteous, and good (Romans 7:12), and it could not accurately be described as such if the goal of the law were not to teach us how to act in accordance with those aspects of His nature,, which is the way to know God, yet someone can do good things in accordance with God's law while still being counted as a worker of lawlessness because they are neglecting to act in accordance with aspects of God's nature.

In 1 John 2:4, those who say that they know Jesus, but don't obey his commands are liars, in 1 John 3:4-6, those who continue to sin in transgression of God's law have nether seen nor known him, and in Matthew 7:23, Jesus said that he would tell those who are workers of lawlessness to depart from him because he never knew them, so knowing Jesus through expressing his nature is the goal of the law, which is eternal life (John 17:3). However, the problem in Matthew 7:21-23, Romans 9:30-10:4, and Philippians 3:8 was that they were obeying the law while missing that knowing Christ is the goal of the law, so they were missing the whole point of obeying the law, which is why Paul counted it as a rubbish and Jesus still counted them as workers of lawlessness.
 
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Danthemailman

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I find this very confusing and even self-contradictory, when we consider that Jesus tells them to depart because they were "workers of lawlessness"
These many people in Matthew 7:22 had the wrong foundation. They were trusting in their works to save them and NOT IN CHRIST ALONE. Their hearts were not right with God, so their "attempted external obedience" (apart from the righteousness of God which is by faith) remains stained with sin. Without faith it's impossible to please God no matter how many alleged wonderful works that these many people set out to conjure up through the flesh in a vain effort to obtain salvation based on their works.

This is why Jesus referred to these many people as "workers of iniquity/lawlessness." God does not see the righteousness of God through faith in Jesus (Romans 4:5-6; Philippians 3:9) in unbelievers, but He see's all of their sins which remain and have not been washed away by the blood of Christ. Hence, workers of iniquity/lawlessness.
 
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Danthemailman

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There is also a difference between doing God's will IN ORDER TO BECOME SAVED: John 6:40 - For my Father’s will is that everyone who looks to the Son and believes in him shall have eternal life, and I will raise them up at the last day.

AND

Doing God's will AFTER WE HAVE BEEN SAVED: 1 Thessalonians 5:14 - Now we exhort you, brethren, warn those who are unruly, comfort the fainthearted, uphold the weak, be patient with all. 15 See that no one renders evil for evil to anyone, but always pursue what is good both for yourselves and for all. 16 Rejoice always, 17 pray without ceasing, 18 in everything give thanks; for this is the will of God in Christ Jesus for you.

Apart from the former, the latter is in vain.
 
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Soyeong

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These many people in Matthew 7:22 had the wrong foundation. They were trusting in their works to save them and NOT IN CHRIST ALONE. Their hearts were not right with God, so their "attempted external obedience" (apart from the righteousness of God which is by faith) remains stained with sin. Without faith it's impossible to please God no matter how many alleged wonderful works that these many people set out to conjure up through the flesh in a vain effort to obtain salvation based on their works.

This is why Jesus referred to these many people as "workers of iniquity/lawlessness." God does not see the righteousness of God through faith in Jesus (Romans 4:5-6; Philippians 3:9) in unbelievers, but He see's all of their sins which remain and have not been washed away by the blood of Christ. Hence, workers of iniquity/lawlessness.
God is trustworthy, therefore His law is also trustworthy (Psalms 19:7), so to obediently rely on the law that God has instructed for salvation is to rely on God for salvation. Jesus is God's word made flesh, so the way to t) is external to obeying God's word. Our salvation is from sin (Matthew 1:21) and sin is the transgression of God's law (1 John 3:4), so living in obedience to it is intrinsically part of the concept of Jesus saving us from not living in obedience to it. In Titus 2:11-14, our salvation is described as being trained by grace to do what is godly, righteous, and good, and to renounce doing what is ungodly, which notably does not say either that we need to do those works in before we can become saved or that we will do those works after we have been saved, but rather it describes the content of God's gift of salvation as God graciously teaching us to do those works. While Paul denied in Romans 4:5-6 that we can earn our justification as a wage, he also said in Romans 2:13 that only doers of the law will be justified, so there is a reason why our justification requires us to choose to be doers of the law other than in order to earn it as a wage, such as faith.
 
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Danthemailman

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God is trustworthy, therefore His law is also trustworthy (Psalms 19:7), so to obediently rely on the law that God has instructed for salvation is to rely on God for salvation. Jesus is God's word made flesh, so the way to t) is external to obeying God's word. Our salvation is from sin (Matthew 1:21) and sin is the transgression of God's law (1 John 3:4), so living in obedience to it is intrinsically part of the concept of Jesus saving us from not living in obedience to it. In Titus 2:11-14, our salvation is described as being trained by grace to do what is godly, righteous, and good, and to renounce doing what is ungodly, which notably does not say either that we need to do those works in before we can become saved or that we will do those works after we have been saved, but rather it describes the content of God's gift of salvation as God graciously teaching us to do those works. While Paul denied in Romans 4:5-6 that we can earn our justification as a wage, he also said in Romans 2:13 that only doers of the law will be justified, so there is a reason why our justification requires us to choose to be doers of the law other than in order to earn it as a wage, such as faith.
We are not justified by works of the law, but by faith in Jesus Christ. (Acts 13:39; Romans 3:28; Galatians 2:16; 3:10-14) In regards to Romans 2:13, this verse needs to be read in context. Paul was talking to the Jews (continue to read on in Romans 2:17-24) about their judging of the Gentiles and then points them to their own law (standard of judgment) and hypocrisy and tells them that the doers of the law will be justified before God (v. 13). That leaves them out, along with everyone else (Romans 3:22-28; Galatians 2:16).

The standard they wanted to measure up to was the law. Paul was telling them that the doers of the law will be justified. So, obey the law, *obey all of it, but if you don’t obey all of it, you failed!* He tells them that the Gentiles who didn't have the law according to the knowledge of the Jews were instinctively doing the things of the law (verse 14) and will be judged accordingly. How much more so the Jews?

Paul was showing the self-righteous Jews who judged the Gentiles that they were not able to measure up to the perfect standard of the law. They were hypocrites. This is why Paul tells us in the very next chapter in Romans 3:28 that we are justified by faith apart from the works of the law. No one was able to perfectly obey the law (except for Jesus Christ). If you fail even once (stumble in one point), then you become guilty of all.

James 2:10, "For whoever keeps the whole law and yet stumbles in one point, he has become guilty of all." Galatians 3:10, For as many as are of the works of the law are under a curse; for it is written, "Cursed is everyone who does not abide by all things written in the book of the law, to perform them."

The Jews can be justified before God by keeping the Law, but he or she has to be 100% perfect. *A person can’t fail even once--ever. *But all have failed (Romans 3:23; 6:23), that is why man is justified before God by faith and not by the works of the law (Romans 3:24-28, 4:2-6; 5:1).
 
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Soyeong

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We are not justified by works of the law, but by faith in Jesus Christ. (Acts 13:39; Romans 3:28; Galatians 2:16; 3:10-14) In regards to Romans 2:13, this verse needs to be read in context. Paul was talking to the Jews (continue to read on in Romans 2:17-24) about their judging of the Gentiles and then points them to their own law (standard of judgment) and hypocrisy and tells them that the doers of the law will be justified before God (v. 13). That leaves them out, along with everyone else (Romans 3:22-28; Galatians 2:16).
In Acts 5:32, the Spirit has been given to those who obey God, so obedience to God is part of the way to receive the Spirit, however, Galatians 3:1-2 denies that works of the law are part of the way to receive the Spirit, therefore the phrase "works of the law" does not refer to anything that God has commanded, which is why we are not justified by obeying them. In Romans 3:27, Paul contrasted a law of works with a law of faith, so works of the law are of works, while he said in Romans 3:31 that our faith upholds God's law, so it is of faith, and a law that our faith upholds can't be referring to the same thing as the works of the law that are not of faith in Galatians 3:10-11.

In context of Romans 2:13, Paul said:

Romans 2:6-7 He will render to each one according to his works: 7 to those who by patience in well-doing seek for glory and honor and immortality, he will give eternal life;

So that confirms what Paul said in Romans 2:13. The fact that Paul criticized some Jews for their hypocrisy in Romans 2:17-24 does not change the truth of what he said in Romans 2:6-7 and 13. In Romans 2:25-29, the way to recognize that a Gentile has a circumcised heart is by observing their obedience to God's law, which is the same way to tell for a Jew (Deuteronomy 30:6), and circumcision of the heart is a matter of the Spirit, which is in contrast with Acts 7:51-53, where those with uncircumcised hearts resist the Spirit and do not obey God's law, so Paul was by no means excluding either Jews or Gentiles from being doers of the law. Rather, in Romans 2:17-24, Paul was calling those Jews to repent from their hypocrisy and to act in line with what they teach.

The standard they wanted to measure up to was the law. Paul was telling them that the doers of the law will be justified. So, obey the law, *obey all of it, but if you don’t obey all of it, you failed!*

Paul notably did not say what you added.

He tells them that the Gentiles who didn't have the law according to the knowledge of the Jews were instinctively doing the things of the law (verse 14) and will be judged accordingly. How much more so the Jews?

Indeed, Gentiles were by nature obeying the law and Paul was calling the Jews to also obey.
Paul was showing the self-righteous Jews who judged the Gentiles that they were not able to measure up to the perfect standard of the law. They were hypocrites. This is why Paul tells us in the very next chapter in Romans 3:28 that we are justified by faith apart from the works of the law. No one was able to perfectly obey the law (except for Jesus Christ). If you fail even once (stumble in one point), then you become guilty of all.
Paul notably said nothing about the Jew being self-righteous or about them needing to have perfect obedience. They were hypocrites because they were doing what they spoke against. The law itself came with instructions for what to do when the people sinned, so perfect obedience has never been a requirement for us. Even if someone managed to have perfect obedience, they still wouldn't earn their justification as a wage by obeying God's law (Romans 4:4-5), so you trying to make Romans 2 about perfect obedience is completely missing the point.

James 2:10, "For whoever keeps the whole law and yet stumbles in one point, he has become guilty of all." Galatians 3:10, For as many as are of the works of the law are under a curse; for it is written, "Cursed is everyone who does not abide by all things written in the book of the law, to perform them."

In James 2:1-11, he was speaking to people who had already sinned by showing favoritism, so he was not telling them that they needed to have perfect obedience because that would have already been too late, and he was not discouraging them from trying to obey God's law, and he was not even speaking about justification, but rather he was encouraging them to repent and to do a better job of obeying God's law more consistently.

The Jews can be justified before God by keeping the Law, but he or she has to be 100% perfect. *A person can’t fail even once--ever. *But all have failed (Romans 3:23; 6:23), that is why man is justified before God by faith and not by the works of the law (Romans 3:24-28, 4:2-6; 5:1).

Repentance doesn't change the fact that we do not have perfect obedience, so the fact that repentance has value demonstrates that we don't need to have perfect obedience, and the consistent call of the prophets was for repentance, not for perfect obedience. In Romans 3:21-22, it does not say that the Law and the Prophets testify that the righteousness of God comes through 100% perfect obedience, but rather the only way to become righteous that is testified about in the Law and the Prophets is through faith in Christ for all who believe. Nowhere does the Bible speak about needing to have 100% perfect obedience as a means of becoming justified before God or warn that we can't fail even once. In Roman 6:19-23, we are no longer to present ourselves as slaves of impurity, lawlessness, and sin, but are now to present ourselves as slaves of God and of righteousness leading to sanctification, an the goal of sanctification is eternal life in God, which is the gift of God, so obedience to God's law is the content of His gift of eternal life, which is in accordance with verses like Romans 2:6-7, Luke 10:25-28, Matthew 19:17, and Revelation 22:14, where obedience to God's law is required for eternal life, but again none of these verses say anything about perfect obedience. In Matthew 23:23, Jesus said that faith is one of the weightier matters of God's law, so obedience to it is the way to have faith in God.
 
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Danthemailman

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In Acts 5:32, the Spirit has been given to those who obey God, so obedience to God is part of the way to receive the Spirit, however, Galatians 3:1-2 denies that works of the law are part of the way to receive the Spirit, therefore the phrase "works of the law" does not refer to anything that God has commanded, which is why we are not justified by obeying them. In Romans 3:27, Paul contrasted a law of works with a law of faith, so works of the law are of works, while he said in Romans 3:31 that our faith upholds God's law, so it is of faith, and a law that our faith upholds can't be referring to the same thing as the works of the law that are not of faith in Galatians 3:10-11.
The act of obedience which causes us to receive the Holy Spirit is choosing to believe the gospel. Romans 10:16 - But they have not all obeyed the gospel. For Isaiah says, “Lord, who has believed our report?” Ephesians 1:13 - In Him you also trusted, after you heard the word of truth, the gospel of your salvation; in whom also, having believed, you were sealed with the Holy Spirit of promise. Not to be confused with multiple acts of obedience/works which follow.

In regards to Romans 3:31, we uphold the law by putting our faith in the One who fulfilled all the righteous requirements of the law on our behalf and who offers us His perfect righteousness as a gift. (Romans 4:5-6) Christ is the culmination of the law so that there may be righteousness for everyone who believes. (Romans 10:4)

In context of Romans 2:13, Paul said:

Romans 2:6-7 He will render to each one according to his works: 7 to those who by patience in well-doing seek for glory and honor and immortality, he will give eternal life;
In regards to Romans 2:6-7, if one reads Romans 2:6-11 in isolation from the rest of the book of Romans, one might conclude that Paul was teaching salvation by works, which seems to be what you are teaching. However, as you read and study these passages, it's imperative to keep in mind that these verses do not describe how one becomes saved, but the way the saved (and unsaved) conduct their lives. These works done are the result of, not the means or basis of receiving salvation.

So patient continuance in well doing, seeking for glory, honor, and immortality; (vs. 7) is not at all set forth as the means of their procuring eternal life, but as a description of those to whom God does render life eternal. *Notice that ALL who receive eternal life are described as such, everyone who does good (vs. 10). Good deeds flow from a heart that is saved and evil deeds flow from a heart that is unsaved. Verse 8 - but to those who are self-seeking and do not obey the truth, but obey unrighteousness--indignation and wrath. *Notice that ALL who do not receive eternal life are described as such, everyone who does evil (vs. 9).

What those passages convey is that though our deeds are judged by God, it's not the good deeds themselves which are the basis or means by which we obtain salvation, but the type of deeds expose whether or not our heart was saved. These deeds done out of faith are the fruit, but not the root of salvation. If Paul wanted to teach that we are saved by works, then he would have clearly stated that we are saved through faith and works in Ephesians 2:8,9 and that we are justified by faith and works in Romans 5:1 but that is clearly NOT what Paul said. *Also see (Romans 4:2-6; Titus 3:5; 2 Timothy 1:9 etc..).

So that confirms what Paul said in Romans 2:13. The fact that Paul criticized some Jews for their hypocrisy in Romans 2:17-24 does not change the truth of what he said in Romans 2:6-7 and 13.
What Paul said in Romans 2:6-11 doesn't change the truth of what he said in Romans 2:13 which confirms what I said.

In Romans 2:25-29, the way to recognize that a Gentile has a circumcised heart is by observing their obedience to God's law, which is the same way to tell for a Jew (Deuteronomy 30:6), and circumcision of the heart is a matter of the Spirit, which is in contrast with Acts 7:51-53, where those with uncircumcised hearts resist the Spirit and do not obey God's law, so Paul was by no means excluding either Jews or Gentiles from being doers of the law. Rather, in Romans 2:17-24, Paul was calling those Jews to repent from their hypocrisy and to act in line with what they teach.
It sounds to me like you are mixing the old covenant of law for the Jews with the gospel of grace for the body of Christ and adding your version of justification by the law/imperfect obedience to salvation through faith. Acts 7:51-53 is directed at Israel and they did not keep the law. How can people be doers of the law when they have not kept it? Nobody (except Jesus Christ) has flawlessly obeyed the law. The Israelites were continuously stumbling over the law. (Acts 15:1-5; 24-28; Romans 10:1-4) Salvation by grace plus law, faith plus works is a false gospel. (Galatians 1:6-9)

Paul notably did not say what you added.
What Paul said is not in line with your eisegesis.

Indeed, Gentiles were by nature obeying the law and Paul was calling the Jews to also obey.
Romans 2:14 - for when Gentiles, who do not have the law, by nature do the things in the law, these, although not having the law, are a law to themselves, 15 who show the work of the law written in their hearts, their conscience also bearing witness, and between themselves their thoughts accusing or else excusing them). This does not mean that the Gentiles perfectly obeyed the entire law.

Paul notably said nothing about the Jew being self-righteous or about them needing to have perfect obedience. They were hypocrites because they were doing what they spoke against. The law itself came with instructions for what to do when the people sinned,
Being self righteous and hypocritical is certainly implied. Romans 2:17 - Indeed you are called a Jew, and rest on the law, and make your boast in God, 18 and know His will, and approve the things that are excellent, being instructed out of the law, 19 and are confident that you yourself are a guide to the blind, a light to those who are in darkness, 20 an instructor of the foolish, a teacher of babes, having the form of knowledge and truth in the law. 21 You, therefore, who teach another, do you not teach yourself? You who preach that a man should not steal, do you steal? 22 You who say, “Do not commit adultery,” do you commit adultery? You who abhor idols, do you rob temples? 23 You who make your boast in the law, do you dishonor God through breaking the law? 24 For “the name of God is blasphemed among the Gentiles because of you,” as it is written.
so perfect obedience has never been a requirement for us.
It's a good thing because ONLY Jesus Christ has met that requirement.

Even if someone managed to have perfect obedience, they still wouldn't earn their justification as a wage by obeying God's law (Romans 4:4-5), so you trying to make Romans 2 about perfect obedience is completely missing the point.
Only Jesus Christ had perfect obedience, so NOBODY will be justified by the law. In regards to the law, perfect obedience is the standard so what point am I missing? Were the Israelites not being hypocrites? Were they not seeking justification by the law? In Romans 10:1, we read - Brethren, my heart’s desire and prayer to God for Israel is that they may be saved. 2 For I bear them witness that they have a zeal for God, but not according to knowledge. 3 For they being ignorant of God’s righteousness, and seeking to establish their own righteousness, have not submitted to the righteousness of God. 4 For Christ is the end of the law for righteousness to everyone who believes.

In James 2:1-11, he was speaking to people who had already sinned by showing favoritism, so he was not telling them that they needed to have perfect obedience because that would have already been too late, and he was not discouraging them from trying to obey God's law, and he was not even speaking about justification, but rather he was encouraging them to repent and to do a better job of obeying God's law more consistently.
James 2:10 - "For whoever keeps the whole law and yet stumbles in one point, he has become guilty of all" is clear to me and the body of Christ is not under the law, but is under grace. (Romans 6:14) You seem to be hung up on the law. Are you Jewish?

Repentance doesn't change the fact that we do not have perfect obedience, so the fact that repentance has value demonstrates that we don't need to have perfect obedience, and the consistent call of the prophets was for repentance, not for perfect obedience. In Romans 3:21-22, it does not say that the Law and the Prophets testify that the righteousness of God comes through 100% perfect obedience, but rather the only way to become righteous that is testified about in the Law and the Prophets is through faith in Christ for all who believe. Nowhere does the Bible speak about needing to have 100% perfect obedience as a means of becoming justified before God or warn that we can't fail even once.
Is God's standard not 100% obedience? (Ecclesiastes 7:20; Romans 3:23; 6:23) Salvation does not come through perfect obedience because all have sinned and come short of the glory of God and the wages of sin is death, but the gift of God is eternal life through Jesus Christ our Lord.

In Roman 6:19-23, we are no longer to present ourselves as slaves of impurity, lawlessness, and sin, but are now to present ourselves as slaves of God and of righteousness leading to sanctification, an the goal of sanctification is eternal life in God, which is the gift of God, so obedience to God's law is the content of His gift of eternal life, which is in accordance with verses like Romans 2:6-7, Luke 10:25-28, Matthew 19:17, and Revelation 22:14, where obedience to God's law is required for eternal life, but again none of these verses say anything about perfect obedience.
Which law are you talking about? You are trying to add "imperfect obedience" to the law to salvation through faith. So how much imperfect obedience does it take? You are teaching salvation by faith + works which is a "different" gospel.

In Matthew 23:23, Jesus said that faith is one of the weightier matters of God's law, so obedience to it is the way to have faith in God.
Jesus was addressing the scribes and Pharisees here and was talking about the law of Moses. Are you under the law of Moses? Are you an Israelite who is under the old covenant of law?
 
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