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Did Matthew quote Hosea out of context?
Yes, according to our modern formal scientific sense of scholarship.
Hosea 11:
Matthew cites Hosea out of context in Matthew 2:15 and applies it to Jesus:
In Jewish hermeneutics, there are four levels of interpretive principles:
Yes, according to Jewish hermeneutics.
Another case can be found when Jesus quoted Isaiah in Luke 4:
Did Jesus quote Isaiah properly?
Yes, according to Jewish hermeneutics.
See also May HIS camp become desolate, and let there be no one to dwell in IT.
Yes, according to our modern formal scientific sense of scholarship.
Hosea 11:
Hosea was talking about the rebellious nature of the Israelites.1 “When Israel was a child, I loved him, and out of Egypt, I called my son. 2 But the more they were called, the more they went away from me. They sacrificed to the Baals and they burned incense to images.
Matthew cites Hosea out of context in Matthew 2:15 and applies it to Jesus:
The NT writers didn't scientifically cite the OT scriptures in many instances. What were they thinking?[Egypt] where he stayed until the death of Herod. And so was fulfilled what the Lord had said through the prophet: "Out of Egypt I called my son."
In Jewish hermeneutics, there are four levels of interpretive principles:
- Peshat is the simple, obvious, literal meaning of a biblical text.
- Remez (hint) is the typological or allegorical interpretation.
- Derash digs deeper to search for the intent of the divine author of the text.
- Sod unveils the secret mystical meanings.
Did Matthew quote Hosea properly?25 He said to them, “How foolish you are, and how slow to believe all that the prophets have spoken! 26 Did not the Messiah have to suffer these things and then enter his glory?” 27 And beginning with Moses and all the Prophets, he explained to them what was said in all the Scriptures concerning himself.
Yes, according to Jewish hermeneutics.
Another case can be found when Jesus quoted Isaiah in Luke 4:
Here is the original context, Isaiah 61:219 to proclaim the year of the Lord’s favor.”
Jesus didn't continue the verse and mentioned God's vengeance because the year of the LORD's favor and the day of our God's vengeance are two distinct and separate events. They are his first and second comings.to proclaim the year of the LORD's favor and the day of our God's vengeance, to comfort all who mourn
Did Jesus quote Isaiah properly?
Yes, according to Jewish hermeneutics.
See also May HIS camp become desolate, and let there be no one to dwell in IT.