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Hosea 11:
Matthew cites Hosea out of context in Matthew 2:15 and applies it to Jesus:
Did Matthew quote Hosea out of context?
Yes, I think so according to our modern sense of scholarship.
One can find quite a few such instances where the NT writers didn't cite the OT scriptures properly. What were they thinking?
In Jewish hermeneutics, there are four levels of interpretive principles:
Yes, according to Jewish hermeneutics.
Another case can be found when Jesus quoted Isaiah in Luke 4:
Here is the original context, Isaiah 61:2
Did Jesus quote Isaiah properly?
Yes, according to Jewish hermeneutics.
Paul did similarly in 1 Cor 9:
Did Paul quote Moses properly?
Yes, according to Jewish hermeneutics.
Hosea was talking about the rebellious nature of the Israelites.1 “When Israel was a child, I loved him, and out of Egypt, I called my son. 2 But the more they were called, the more they went away from me. They sacrificed to the Baals and they burned incense to images.
Matthew cites Hosea out of context in Matthew 2:15 and applies it to Jesus:
[Egypt] where he stayed until the death of Herod. And so was fulfilled what the Lord had said through the prophet: "Out of Egypt I called my son."
Did Matthew quote Hosea out of context?
Yes, I think so according to our modern sense of scholarship.
One can find quite a few such instances where the NT writers didn't cite the OT scriptures properly. What were they thinking?
In Jewish hermeneutics, there are four levels of interpretive principles:
- Peshat is the simple, obvious, literal meaning of a biblical text.
- Remez (hint) is the typological or allegorical interpretation.
- Derash digs deeper to search for the intent of the divine author of the text.
- Sod unveils the secret mystical meanings.
Did Matthew quote Hosea properly?25 He said to them, “How foolish you are, and how slow to believe all that the prophets have spoken! 26 Did not the Messiah have to suffer these things and then enter his glory?” 27 And beginning with Moses and all the Prophets, he explained to them what was said in all the Scriptures concerning himself.
Yes, according to Jewish hermeneutics.
Another case can be found when Jesus quoted Isaiah in Luke 4:
19 to proclaim the year of the Lord’s favor.”
Here is the original context, Isaiah 61:2
Jesus didn't continue the verse and mentioned God's vengeance because the year of the LORD'S favor and the day of our God's vengeance are two distinct and separate events. They are his first and second comings.to proclaim the year of the LORD's favor and the day of our God's vengeance, to comfort all who mourn
Did Jesus quote Isaiah properly?
Yes, according to Jewish hermeneutics.
Paul did similarly in 1 Cor 9:
9For it is written in the Law of Moses, “You shall not muzzle an ox when it treads out the grain.” Is it for oxen that God is concerned? 10Does he not certainly speak for our sake? It was written for our sake, because the plowman should plow in hope and the thresher thresh in hope of sharing in the crop.
Did Paul quote Moses properly?
Yes, according to Jewish hermeneutics.
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