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We keep saying it, but Brightfame52 doesn't want to accept it.
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We keep saying it, but Brightfame52 doesn't want to accept it.His people refer to the Jews.
Do you believe only Jews can be saved?
He came to His own, and His own did not receive Him. But as many as received Him, to them He gave the right to become children of God, to those who believe in His name: John 1:11-12
You are committing the Negative Inference Fallacy.Matt 1:21
21And she shall bring forth a son, and thou shalt call his name JESUS: for he shall save his people from their sins.
Scripture could not be plainer than this, as to whom Jesus Christ was born to save from their sins, whom He is a Saviour to, His People !
Not the whole world of mankind, for many of them are not His People.
You dont want to accept it do you ?You are committing the Negative Inference Fallacy.
The negative inference fallacy is a logical fallacy that occurs when a positive assertion about something does not by itself logically lead to a negative inference about something else123.
For example, if a positive assertion is true it does not follow that the opposite is true. Hosea prophesied that God would save those who were not his people if they had faith. In Romans 9 Paul quotes this prophecy to show that the Gentiles who were not his people would become his people.
25As He says also in Hosea:
“I will call them My people, who were not My people,
And them beloved, who were not beloved.”
26 “And it shall come to pass in the place where it was said to them,
‘You are not My people,’
There they shall be called sons of the living God.”
Ask of me,.... Jehovah is either here again introduced speaking, or these words are a continuation of the Son's account of what his Father said unto him; which do not suppose any superiority in the one, or inferiority in the other; but are only expressive of the Father's great respect and affection for his Son, as such a way of speaking among men shows, Esther 5:3; and of the great interest the Son had in his Father, who could ask nothing but he had it; and shows the perfect harmony, agreement, and unity between them: see 1 Kings 3:5; Christ, in the council and covenant of grace and peace, asked many things of his Father, which were granted; he asked for the persons of all the elect to be his bride and spouse, and his heart's desire was given him, and the request of his lips was not withheld from him: he asked for all the blessings of grace for them; for spiritual life here, and eternal life hereafter; and all were given him, and put into his hands for them, Psalm 20:2; and here it is promised him,
and I shall give thee the Heathen for thine inheritance, and the uttermost parts of the earth for thy possession; by "the Heathen", and "the uttermost parts of the earth", are meant God's elect among the Gentiles, and who live in the distant parts of the world; which are Christ's other sheep, the Father has given to him as his portion, and whom he has made his care and charge: as if it was not enough that he should be King of Zion, or have the government over his chosen ones among the Jews, he commits into his hands the Gentiles also; see Isaiah 49:6; and these are given him as his inheritance and possession, as his portion, to be enjoyed by him; and who esteems them as such, and reckons them a goodly heritage, and a peculiar treasure, his jewels, and the apple of his eye. These words respect the calling of the Gentiles under the Gospel dispensation; and the amplitude of Christ's kingdom in all the earth, which shall be from sea to sea, and from the rivers to the ends of the earth.
No, Matthew 1:21 does not include Gentiles. For Amos 3:2 says,He shall save His People from their Sins ! 6
Matt 1:21
21 And she shall bring forth a son, and thou shalt call his name Jesus: for he shall save his people from their sins.
Now who are the " HIS PEOPLE " in this text, that its promised to and of them, That JESUS Shall Save them from their sins ?
Now multitudes of deceived humanity would have us believe that these refer to ethnic jews of national israel, that is Abraham's physical descendants according to the flesh, but that is a lie, for they are not the Children of God Rom 9:8
8 That is, They[national israel of Rom 9:6] which are the children of the flesh, these are not the children of God: but the children of the promise are counted for the seed.
The israel comprised of the physical descendants of Abraham over in the middle east are no more the Children of God as the Africans in Nigeria are, or the Orientals or Indians, or the Russians, In fact none can claim to be His People based upon the flesh/ethnicity, for that would be God showing respect of Persons, but they are His People by being His Possessions, He has been given them as His Own Possession.
Remember when Jesus said of His Other Sheep this Jn 10:16
16 And other sheep I have, which are not of this fold: them also I must bring, and they shall hear my voice; and there shall be one fold, and one shepherd.
The word have here is very enlightening, its the greek word echó:
I have, hold, possess. to have as belonging to one; have as property; own:
They are His Inheritance, look at Ps 2:7-8
7 I will declare the decree: the Lord hath said unto me, Thou art my Son; this day have I begotten thee.
8 Ask of me, and I shall give thee the heathen for thine inheritance, and the uttermost parts of the earth for thy possession.
This Promise is linked to the Resurrection of Christ, Vs 7 indicates that by the words " Thou art my Son; this day have I begotten thee."
Cp Acts 13:33
33 God hath fulfilled the same unto us their children, in that he hath raised up Jesus again; as it is also written in the second psalm, Thou art my Son, this day have I begotten thee.
Those Heathen are given to Him as His Inheritance, His People, They are the same He says of in Jn 6:37
37 All that the Father giveth me shall come to me; and him that cometh to me I will in no wise cast out.
Yes these given in Jn 6:37 are those given from Ps 2:8, and these heathen are more than less describing men by nature, all the Sheep are by nature enemies and foes, even barbarians, strangers to the True God and His True Religion and Worship, and it can apply to both jew and Gentile by nature !
John Gill writes of Ps 2:8
Thats why His People in Matt 1:21 does include Gentiles, Gentiles Given Him as His Possession according to Ps 2:8 and Jn 10:16 !
I'm explaining the truth to you and you aren't able to receive it friend.No, Matthew 1:21 does not include Gentiles. For Amos 3:2 says,
"You ONLY I have known from all the families of the earth."
The Gentiles were not known to God.
As He says also in Hosea:
“I will call them My people, who were not My people,
And her beloved, who was not beloved.”
26 “And it shall come to pass in the place where it was said to them,
‘You are not My people,’
There they shall be called sons of the living God.”
The Gentiles were not called "my people" nor "beloved" when the angel spoke to Joseph. At that point Christ's beloved people was Israel only. God knew only Israel then.
"You only have I known from all the families of the earth."
And,
He came unto his own and his own received him not."
And,
"I was sent only to the lost sheep of the house of Israel."
The Gentiles BECAME his people at a later time through faith. The point of my previous post remains unrefuted. If Christ died to save his people only, then the Calvinist must accept that the Gentiles are not included.
The numerous verses you cited are taken out of context.
You didn't explain the truth. You convoluted it. You circumvented it by incorporating verses out of their context and concocting your own biblical narrative. Paul clearly said that the Gentiles were "not My people" and "not loved." Then they became "My people" and "loved." I think Paul would know more than you know. There was a time when God didn't love the Gentiles.I'm explaining the truth to you and you aren't able to receive it friend.
Yes I have explained it, you wont receive it, so Im not going to keep explaining !You didn't explain the truth. You convoluted it. You circumvented it by incorporating verses out of their context and concocting your own biblical narrative. Paul clearly said that the Gentiles were "not My people" and "not loved." Then they became "My people" and "loved." I think Paul would know more than you know. There was a time when God didn't love the Gentiles.
The word "heathen" is horrible translation. The word simply means "nations." The "nations" are the rebellious house of Israel.He shall save His People from their Sins ! 6
Matt 1:21
21 And she shall bring forth a son, and thou shalt call his name Jesus: for he shall save his people from their sins.
Now who are the " HIS PEOPLE " in this text, that its promised to and of them, That JESUS Shall Save them from their sins ?
Now multitudes of deceived humanity would have us believe that these refer to ethnic jews of national israel, that is Abraham's physical descendants according to the flesh, but that is a lie, for they are not the Children of God Rom 9:8
8 That is, They[national israel of Rom 9:6] which are the children of the flesh, these are not the children of God: but the children of the promise are counted for the seed.
The israel comprised of the physical descendants of Abraham over in the middle east are no more the Children of God as the Africans in Nigeria are, or the Orientals or Indians, or the Russians, In fact none can claim to be His People based upon the flesh/ethnicity, for that would be God showing respect of Persons, but they are His People by being His Possessions, He has been given them as His Own Possession.
Remember when Jesus said of His Other Sheep this Jn 10:16
16 And other sheep I have, which are not of this fold: them also I must bring, and they shall hear my voice; and there shall be one fold, and one shepherd.
The word have here is very enlightening, its the greek word echó:
I have, hold, possess. to have as belonging to one; have as property; own:
They are His Inheritance, look at Ps 2:7-8
7 I will declare the decree: the Lord hath said unto me, Thou art my Son; this day have I begotten thee.
8 Ask of me, and I shall give thee the heathen for thine inheritance, and the uttermost parts of the earth for thy possession.
This Promise is linked to the Resurrection of Christ, Vs 7 indicates that by the words " Thou art my Son; this day have I begotten thee."
Cp Acts 13:33
33 God hath fulfilled the same unto us their children, in that he hath raised up Jesus again; as it is also written in the second psalm, Thou art my Son, this day have I begotten thee.
Those Heathen are given to Him as His Inheritance, His People, They are the same He says of in Jn 6:37
37 All that the Father giveth me shall come to me; and him that cometh to me I will in no wise cast out.
Yes these given in Jn 6:37 are those given from Ps 2:8, and these heathen are more than less describing men by nature, all the Sheep are by nature enemies and foes, even barbarians, strangers to the True God and His True Religion and Worship, and it can apply to both jew and Gentile by nature !
John Gill writes of Ps 2:8
Thats why His People in Matt 1:21 does include Gentiles, Gentiles Given Him as His Possession according to Ps 2:8 and Jn 10:16 !
Ive explained already !The word "heathen" is horrible translation. The word simply means "nations." The "nations" are the rebellious house of Israel.
Israel was Christ's inheritance.
"But the LORD’s portion is his people, Jacob his allotted inheritance."
The "uttermost parts of the earth" refers to the land of Israel. The word "ge" simply means "land." The promise was that Christ would receive all of Israel as his inheritance. Paul said that the Gentiles being included in the covenant was not revealed to the Old Testament prophets (Ephesians 3).
Your explanation is anachronistic, sir. "His people" means what Joseph would have understood it to mean in his period, not what you take it to mean in your period. According to Matthew's gospel "his people" was Israel. That's how Joseph would have understood it.Ive explained already !
My explaining is the Truth, you just have been deceived friend.Your explanation is anachronistic, sir. "His people" means what Joseph would have understood it to mean in his period, not what you take it to mean in your period. According to Matthew's gospel "his people" was Israel. That's how Joseph would have understood it.
The Gentiles were "not his people" when the angel spoke to Joseph. True or false?
We keep saying it, but Brightfame52 doesn't want to accept it.
Please answer with a true of false like I have already asked. The Gentiles were "not My people" when the angel spoke to Joseph. True or false?My explaining is the Truth, you just have been deceived friend.
Read my posts. I explain who my people are in Matt 1:21Please answer with a true of false like I have already asked. The Gentiles were "not My people" when the angel spoke to Joseph. True or false?
You explain but you do not prove. God didn't reveal to the Old Testament prophets that the Gentiles would become his people (Ephesians 3). You wrangle the Old Testament texts out of their context. So, when the angel spoke to Joseph and said, "he shall save his people from their sins", Joseph would have understood that to be Israel and no other nation. My point remains unrefuted by you. If Matthew 1:21 means that Christ died for his people only, then the Gentiles are excluded for at the time the angel spoke to Joseph the Gentiles were "not my people." If you do not give a sincere attempt to answer this I will claim the victory and we will have to move on to another point.Read my posts. I explain who my people are in Matt 1:21
I cant prove anything, Only God can do that within a persons mind, however I have explained the Truth, you cant receive it, truth isn't for everyone to receive friend. But nevertheless MY People Christ came to save in Matt 1:21 is people of all ethnicities, His Body the Church.You explain but you do not prove. God didn't reveal to the Old Testament prophets that the Gentiles would become his people (Ephesians 3). You wrangle the Old Testament texts out of their context. So, when the angel spoke to Joseph and said, "he shall save his people from their sins", Joseph would have understood that to be Israel and no other nation. My point remains unrefuted by you. If Matthew 1:21 means that Christ died for his people only, then the Gentiles are excluded for at the time the angel spoke to Joseph the Gentiles were "not my people." If you do not give a sincere attempt to answer this I will claim the victory and we will have to move on to another point.
But the Church didn't exist when the angel spoke to Joseph in Matt 1:21.I cant prove anything, Only God can do that within a persons mind, however I have explained the Truth, you cant receive it, truth isn't for everyone to receive friend. But nevertheless MY People Christ came to save in Matt 1:21 is people of all ethnicities, His Body the Church.
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