If we were suppose to make such a big deal about Mary's virginity throughout her life, why wouldn't Paul or Peter say something about it in their writings early on?
I honestly don't know the answer to this one. I do know that Mary's perpetual virginity was a teaching as far back as the second century, which we can only gather is based on first century knowledge. These beliefs are older than the ones claiming Mary had other children and she was not perpetually a virgin. I think these claims were made somewhere in the around 380 AD.
I'll have to ask around about Paul or Peter. I'll get back to you.
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