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Look at the logic

marksman315

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The translation you use is rather one-sided...the word 'homosexual' never appears in the bible anywhere - therefore you are using a translation that has an agenda.

Firmness in belief may or may not contribute to one's heat or cold. But Jesus showed us a way that was not always black or white. Rather than using the term 'lukewarm' as a crutch to help you stand, I challenge you to think deeper about the things of God: the call for each of us to live in love as Christ loved us, to seek Christ in the face of every being.

When we are able to do THAT, we are no longer lukewarm for anything, because we are living the all-encompassing unconditional love of God.

You seem very much to think that I don't think deeply. That is a very arrogant stance.

The word 'lukewarm' is a translation of the Hebrew word used by Jesus to describe the water that was neither warm or cold. I'm fine using the word of Jesus to stand on because I believe it, so if it is my crutch then so be it!

Jesus did show us that it is always black or white. We are either for God or against Him. Nothing is more black or white than that.

I used the NKJV version of those verses. I do not speak either for or against whether or not it has an agenda. Here it is from KJV.
"Know ye not that the unrighteous shall not inherit the kingdom of God? Be not deceived: neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor effeminate, nor abusers of themselves with mankind, nor thieves, nor covetous, nor drunkards, nor revilers, nor extortioners, shall inherit the kingdom of God."

Please post what is written in these verses from your Bible. I am very interested to see what it states and how you feel about the words. I'm curious if your Bible has an agenda?

God does love unconditionally. He wants all of us to have a relationship with Him. However, punishment awaits for those who do not repent of their sins.
 
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marksman315

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It is self contradictory, scientifically inaccurate, historically inaccurate and subject to errors of translation and transmission.

You want a list?

If you truly feel this way, then why do you have your self showing as Catholic? It seems you have a very negative view of the Bible.

I mean this with sincerity and not harsh like it sounds, but are there any parts of it that you do believe?
 
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EnemyPartyII

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If you truly feel this way, then why do you have your self showing as Catholic? It seems you have a very negative view of the Bible.

I mean this with sincerity and not harsh like it sounds, but are there any parts of it that you do believe?

I am a Catholic, although I happily admit that there are areas of Catholic teaching with which I disagree. I just think that the Catholic church is as good as any and better than most denominations, plus its what the rest of my family is, so its the best available fit for me.

Yes, I believe parts of the Bible, and I believe all of it is useful if interpreted correctly, but therein lies the trick. I believe a great deal of it is ancient oral traditional explanation that has over time turned into Holy writ, but is not actually "God's Word". While the OT is interesting and gives a great deal of insight into Jesus' context, I genuinely believe that the REALLY important part of the Bible are the 4 gospels and to a lesser extent Revelation.

You will note that Biblical literalism is not a component of Catholic theology or dogma, and indeed, both Popes I've known during my lifetime agree that, for example, Genesis is allegorical, not historical.

Hope this answers your question, thanks for asking :)
 
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marksman315

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I am a Catholic, although I happily admit that there are areas of Catholic teaching with which I disagree. I just think that the Catholic church is as good as any and better than most denominations, plus its what the rest of my family is, so its the best available fit for me.

Yes, I believe parts of the Bible, and I believe all of it is useful if interpreted correctly, but therein lies the trick. I believe a great deal of it is ancient oral traditional explanation that has over time turned into Holy writ, but is not actually "God's Word". While the OT is interesting and gives a great deal of insight into Jesus' context, I genuinely believe that the REALLY important part of the Bible are the 4 gospels and to a lesser extent Revelation.

You will note that Biblical literalism is not a component of Catholic theology or dogma, and indeed, both Popes I've known during my lifetime agree that, for example, Genesis is allegorical, not historical.

Hope this answers your question, thanks for asking :)

Thank you very much for your reply and your honesty.
 
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Morrigu

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All sciences are to some degree inherently subjective because they are based upon human observation. Even while its accepted that the universe is massive and even possibly infinite, we can only measure the observable universe; and from that measurement, we can even assert by our own subjective position that Earth is the center of the universe. Yet if the position of the earth were moved by 100 million light years in any direction, that would new place would be the center of the universe. Even so, the universe itself exists independently of our position within it, and so while we can move from place to place, the universe remains unaffected. We have no proof, of course, of a universe beyond the observable universe, but we assume it exists anyway. Physical evidence is not always required proof, nor is it even sufficient in many cases. A man can be convicted of a crime by the testimony of witnesses without physical evidence. So I also say it is with theology: we study what we can observe, we observe what already exists, and the testimony of witnesses in this study is sufficient. While you may think there is no proof of God, I assert instead that there exists ample proof; that history, all the sciences, and the testimony of men speak to it.


Are you compareing theology to physics, or astronomy?
Look, all you said about the universe and our subjective point of view is truth, but the way we know the universe is a conclusion, a proyection from the know aspects of our portion of space, as they are now, they only began as theories, and slowly proof and calculations came that back them up.

But god? If there were a way to back the claim that there is a god or a divinity in other form than tradition or faith, there would be no diversity of religions and beliefs. Truth is we CAN'T know if there is anything remotly like a "god", much less know that the books that have been written on his name are real.

Yes, apart from our subjective point of view there is a common reality. One that is filtered by our senses, and our thoughts. We are limited in our understanding and perception. To claim knowlodge of a bigger truth is to denie your own human escence. We are still ignorants of the world we live in.

Now, disciplines like theology or aesthetics are not based upon phisical proof or methodical observation(wich is how we can come to the conclusion you mentioned about the universe). They are based on another kind of observation, another set of mind. Yes, still scientific in some of it's ways, but more philosophical. Based on thought and pure ideas. God is an idea that can't be known, a concept pure because it has no single phisical presence on this earth but rather countless man made representations.

GOD IS MADE BY US, IN EVERY WORD OR IMAGE WE CREATE ABOUT HIM.
Not because he doesn't exist, i have no f***ing idea if he does. But what you call god, and what i sense as a divine essence are socio-cultural and philosophical constructions made to fit into an abissmal perception that there is something we cant express from this world.

I question the divinity of a thing if it is not universal. Certainly our understanding of a thing is subjective, but its existence is not dependent upon our understanding.

Yours too, how can you know that your god is anything more than a tale?
A tale made to fit a greater sense of something that can't have an expresion in this world? All religions are wrong, because they asume themselves perfect expresions of that wich can't be expresed.

That is why i don't really define what I think of as a divinity, i would be falling into that game of taking a truth that doesn't belong to me (or you) and try to shove it up everyones collective *sses.

There is where we ought to separate what we create and what was already created. Men did not create the universe.

Well i wouldn't use the word "created", I would just say that the universe pre-dates* man.

*Edit: I meant it to say that the universe does come before man, trying to exclude the notion that it was created. We can't know that either. All we know is that we come into existence in a place that was all set and ready. And that by the time we leave it will still be runing like it does. You can only live in the world you know, the world you can sense and understand, and we are limited by it. From the sensed universe we can barly get our minds to proyect to the greater Universe. How can we asume we know all about it? It would be hubris to do so.
The claim that there is no shadow of a doubt about the existence of a god, is one of those acts.*

Men did not create the relationships of the things in the universe. Men created words to describe those relationships, but even without those words and the theories linked to them, the universe would still function.

Again I agree the universe predates man. But what we construct is not the universe in intself, but a perception of it, and the knowlodge about it. I don't denie the independence of objects from the subject. I denie that we can truly know their essence, we can aproach it, but we can't posses the essense.

All right, an example, very over simplified:
Take a 6 sided dice. Now try to see every side of the dice at the same time. Can't? No surprise there. At most you can see 3 sides. Do the other sides of the dice disapear when you don't see them? well no, of course not. Are this 3 sides you see the entire dice? no, of course not.

Let's say that the dice is "the essense", of whatever, and you see a limited amount of aspects of it (3 sides). Even if you turn the dice to see the other 3 sides you loose the sight on the previous 3. You would have to be able to see the dice beyond its form, and matter to KNOW all 6 sides at the same time.

It is likewise the same with God, however defined; the divine exists independent of our understanding of it.

But we can't know it

Relativism falls apart because it fails to account for the things not created, nor controlled, by men.

In a sense it does.

If I said the sun is yellow, and you said it was green, it would still have the essence of a specific color regardless of which word we attached to it. It would still be the color we accept as "yellow" even if you called yellow green.

Lets say You call it "yellow", and i call it "amarillo", both words mean the same, but have different fonetic tones, and different gramatic caracteristics, but they both address the same concept. Wich one is more right? wich one speaks Truth about the essense of the color?

or are they both just plain constructed truths.....

in a way the true essense of the color would not even be the representation of the wavelenght of the light that causes the perception of yellow. But the wavelenght itself.

Can you see the wavelenght as the light aproaches your eyes?
Yellow is only yellow because your eye can see it yellow.

So if God has a particular nature, then He has that nature regardless of how we describe it. And like any science, theology comes down to how we observe those things particular to God.

If it really is a hard science then it will provide proof for god. One that can be falseable, that is not absolute, and that sustain itself with evidence.

As a subjective science it can only stay in the face of concepts. It can only remain philosophy.

We can call good evil and evil good, but the nature of a thing, as we already know, is not dependent upon the words used to describe it.

A man is arrested for the brutal murder of another one, he beats him senseles and fills him with docens of bullets.

Acording to a strict moral code this man is evil and must answer for his sins.

The next day you find out that the dead man had killed the arrested man's daughter. Evidence appears that the last words of the dead man were "Kill me, please. I am a monster"

Wich one is evil? or are they both just humans?

A less morbous example:

A man loves a woman.

A man loves a man.

wich one is good? or are they both just humans?


Both men in the first example should pay for what they did, they both broke the boundries of morality to a greater or lesser degree, but to judge the entire person over one word is dumb. Must be judged by their actions.

Both men in the second example are in love. What else is important in that case?

Morality is also constructed. But even as a construction it must be followed, for the good of society.

However it is of no good if morality harms people who don't deserve it. It must not be cast in stone, if it harms people that have done nothing wrong.
.........



There is only one Catholic Church. ;)

don't fool around, you know what I wanted to say.
 
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*Starlight*

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In NKJV, Matthew 19:4-5, Jesus said "Have you not read that He who made them at the beginning 'made them male and female' and said, 'For this reason a man shall leave his father and mother and be joined to his wife, and the two shall become one flesh'".

This seems so clear to me that Jesus is talking about a man and woman being married together and not a homosexual relationship. There are other verses supporting this, but I do not know everything.

Now if two men cannot be married to each other, and two women can't be married to each other, then they can only be with each other in a non-sexual relationship. If they have sex then it is fornication. Sex outside of marriage is sin. It all seems pretty simple to me.

So while homosexuality is not the worst sin (since all sin is evil in the eyes of God, does it really matter which one is worse?), why do we have pastors who are openly gay preaching the ways of sin as if it was righteous?

Can we please discuss this logically?
Using that kind of logic, celibacy is wrong as well, because it also goes against "a man leaving his mother and father, and becoming one flesh with his wife". If you use the argument that homosexuality is wrong because it prevents a person from fulfilling that statement, then logically anything else, including celibacy, is also wrong if it prevents a person from fulfilling that statement.

Personally, I don't see that statement as a command such as "You MUST get a wife", but a general observation, like "Men generally leave their parents and get a wife". :)
 
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Wiccan_Child

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Using that kind of logic, celibacy is wrong as well, because it also goes against "a man leaving his mother and father, and becoming one flesh with his wife". If you use the argument that homosexuality is wrong because it prevents a person from fulfilling that statement, then logically anything else, including celibacy, is also wrong if it prevents a person from fulfilling that statement.

Personally, I don't see that statement as a command such as "You MUST get a wife", but a general observation, like "Men generally leave their parents and get a wife". :)
You make a good point. More so when one considers that Paul advocated celibacy, and saw marriage as a fall-back for those who couldn't resist their sexual urges.
 
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marksman315

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Using that kind of logic, celibacy is wrong as well, because it also goes against "a man leaving his mother and father, and becoming one flesh with his wife". If you use the argument that homosexuality is wrong because it prevents a person from fulfilling that statement, then logically anything else, including celibacy, is also wrong if it prevents a person from fulfilling that statement.

Personally, I don't see that statement as a command such as "You MUST get a wife", but a general observation, like "Men generally leave their parents and get a wife". :)

Here is a passage from 1 Corinthians 7:32-38. Please understand that the context of this writing by the Apostle Paul is already with the understanding that fornication is wrong, so the people he is writing to know that sex outside of marriage is wrong (hence all the mentioning about virgins).

32: But I want you to be without care. He who is unmarried cares for the things of the Lord - how he may please the Lord.
33: But he who is married cares about the things of the world - how he may please his wife.
34: There is a difference between a wife and a virgin. The unmarried woman cares about the things of the Lord, that she may be holy in both body and in spirit. But she who is married cares about the things of the world - how she may please her husband.
35: And this I say for your own profit, not that I may put a leash on you, but for what is proper, and that you may serve the Lord without distraction.
36: But if any man thinks he is behaving improperly toward his virgin, if she is past the flower of youth, and thus it must be, let him do what he wishes. He does not sin; let them marry.
37: Nevertheles he who stands steadfast in his heart, having no necessity, but has power over his own will, and has so determined in his heart that he will keep his virgin, does well.
38: So then he who gives her in marriage does well, but he who does not give her in marriage does better.

As you can see, it is not a sin to be celibate. It is actually better to be celibate, but it is not sinful to be married if we cannot restrain our wills.
 
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marksman315

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You make a good point. More so when one considers that Paul advocated celibacy, and saw marriage as a fall-back for those who couldn't resist their sexual urges.

You are so close, however Paul is talking about a man and a wife. All the references to "wife" I have encountered so far refer to a woman.
 
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KCKID

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You are so close, however Paul is talking about a man and a wife. All the references to "wife" I have encountered so far refer to a woman.

While I don't disapprove of 'gay' marriage, I too would probably refer to 'husband and wife' being 'the norm' if I was making a general reference to 'marriage'. That would not mean, however, that commited 'gay' relationships should be excluded from the term 'marriage'.
 
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David Brider

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As you can see, it is not a sin to be celibate. It is actually better to be celibate, but it is not sinful to be married if we cannot restrain our wills.

Although that's not the reason most people get married, at least not in my experience.

David.
 
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*Starlight*

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Here is a passage from 1 Corinthians 7:32-38. Please understand that the context of this writing by the Apostle Paul is already with the understanding that fornication is wrong, so the people he is writing to know that sex outside of marriage is wrong (hence all the mentioning about virgins).

32: But I want you to be without care. He who is unmarried cares for the things of the Lord - how he may please the Lord.
33: But he who is married cares about the things of the world - how he may please his wife.
34: There is a difference between a wife and a virgin. The unmarried woman cares about the things of the Lord, that she may be holy in both body and in spirit. But she who is married cares about the things of the world - how she may please her husband.
35: And this I say for your own profit, not that I may put a leash on you, but for what is proper, and that you may serve the Lord without distraction.
36: But if any man thinks he is behaving improperly toward his virgin, if she is past the flower of youth, and thus it must be, let him do what he wishes. He does not sin; let them marry.
37: Nevertheles he who stands steadfast in his heart, having no necessity, but has power over his own will, and has so determined in his heart that he will keep his virgin, does well.
38: So then he who gives her in marriage does well, but he who does not give her in marriage does better.

As you can see, it is not a sin to be celibate. It is actually better to be celibate, but it is not sinful to be married if we cannot restrain our wills.
And logically the same thing would to homosexuals in homosexual relationships. :) If they want to be together, let them marry. :)
 
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Wiccan_Child

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You are so close, however Paul is talking about a man and a wife. All the references to "wife" I have encountered so far refer to a woman.
Naturally: Paul was writing to people who were, by and large, heterosexual. Even today's language is almost always assumes that the person is white, male, heterosexual, middle-class, Anglophonic, from the US, etc. This is simply a logical assumption: most people in such contexts are white Americans.
Likewise, the people Paul was preaching to were, by and large, heterosexual males. It would smack of PC if he wrote ambiguously, and PC wasn't even around in those days.

His terminology does not exclude homosexual relationships, it simply addresses the vast majority of relationships.
 
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EnemyPartyII

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Using that kind of logic, celibacy is wrong as well, because it also goes against "a man leaving his mother and father, and becoming one flesh with his wife". If you use the argument that homosexuality is wrong because it prevents a person from fulfilling that statement, then logically anything else, including celibacy, is also wrong if it prevents a person from fulfilling that statement.
My thoughts exactly... if homosexuality is "against nature" because it can't result in reproduction, and doesn't involve one man/one woman, then why don't Catholic Priests get the same arguments against them?

*Watch this space for special pleading, showing that homosexuality and celibacy are not the same thing*
 
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marksman315

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His terminology does not exclude homosexual relationships, it simply addresses the vast majority of relationships.

Once again our logic completely differs. Yours is if it is not explicitly excluded (eventhough it is in some passages) then it is ok. I'm of the belief that we should be reasonable enough to add the pieces together to see the difference between exclusions and inclusions. To make a counterpoint of your assumptions, what if Paul knew exactly who he was writing to (I believe he did)? He could have been writing to all people to make a statement of exactly where he stands. As you stated there was no PC back then, so this would make it that he meant exactly what he wrote.

Not to be disrespectful, but you would make a great politician or lawyer. Trying to find every loophole possible in a law is just like what they do.
 
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marksman315

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While I don't disapprove of 'gay' marriage, I too would probably refer to 'husband and wife' being 'the norm' if I was making a general reference to 'marriage'. That would not mean, however, that commited 'gay' relationships should be excluded from the term 'marriage'.

This truly does boil down to the definition of "marriage". I believe the ancient Greeks (where the norm was bi-sexuality), did not have same sex marriages. Paul was writing to the church in Corinth which is in Greece. My belief is that Paul is very explicit about "husband and wife" because he knew of the sexual practices the people of Greece were accustomed to.
 
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marksman315

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And logically the same thing would to homosexuals in homosexual relationships. :) If they want to be together, let them marry. :)

The logic is that it is exactly as it was written. There are no hidden meanings that I can see in it or anything that makes this passage wide open. For a Christian this should be an important set of verses, but for non-Christians, this really does not matter. If your logic means you are adding to the Bible then that is at your own risk, and your own choosing. I'm just going by what it states and the context of when and where it was written.
 
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marksman315

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My thoughts exactly... if homosexuality is "against nature" because it can't result in reproduction, and doesn't involve one man/one woman, then why don't Catholic Priests get the same arguments against them?

*Watch this space for special pleading, showing that homosexuality and celibacy are not the same thing*

Please see the verses that I typed into here earlier in this forum. This will provide answers about celibacy. 1 Corinthians 7:32-38
 
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Wiccan_Child

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Once again our logic completely differs. Yours is if it is not explicitly excluded (eventhough it is in some passages) then it is ok.
No. I have never said that, nor have I alluded to that. My position is that, if something is not explicitly condemned in the Bible, then one cannot use the Bible to condemn it. It's also worth pointing out the dubious translation of quite a number of key verses; depending on which source you read, there are a number of incompatible translations (in this case, there are pro-gay, anti-gay, and neutral translations).

I'm of the belief that we should be reasonable enough to add the pieces together to see the difference between exclusions and inclusions. To make a counterpoint of your assumptions, what if Paul knew exactly who he was writing to (I believe he did)? He could have been writing to all people to make a statement of exactly where he stands. As you stated there was no PC back then, so this would make it that he meant exactly what he wrote.
Nevertheless, my logic stands: the vast majority of relationships are heterosexual, so it makes sense to use that as the default for his literary rhetoric.

Not to be disrespectful, but you would make a great politician or lawyer. Trying to find every loophole possible in a law is just like what they do.
On the contrary, the lawyer seeks to have his presupposed opinion proven: that is his goal. I, on the other hand, couldn't care less about the specifics of Biblical morality, just so long as we agree. It could explicitly condone paedophilic bestiality with a dash of watersports for all the impact it would have on me.

The lawyer twists the truth to fit his goal. My only goal is to see the truth in its purest form, unadulterated by people with agenda and bias.
 
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