Why post something from someone called "Occult SIN"? God didn't make Satan. He made Lucifer, who became Satan. He fell out of Heaven. People try and say that the whole Satan thing is contrived, but that is incorrect.
As far as Lillith goes, it seems that many times the names of foreign gods and spirits in what we would consider fable, are actually names of devils. Angels (and devils) are not male and female, but they are referred to as "masculine and feminine.
There's really no part of what is presented in the world as "Lillith" that pertains to godliness.
It's worth noting that "Lucifer" is never a name given to the the devil in the Bible. It is a transliteration of the Vulgate's Latin preserved in English language Bibles.
Isaiah doesn't mention the devil, he mentions the very mortal, very human king of Babylon. Here in the text heylel ("shining one") is used as an epithet, a reference to Venus or "morning star" for its brilliance among the stars. The king being rebuked by Isaiah saw himself as high and lofty, among the stars, above the heavens, one of the gods. But that he would see his ruin, brought low, and left desolate, to be scorned by the nations.
The Hebrew heylel (related to halal, to shine, to praise, to boast and thus component of halaluyah, hallelujah) can be rendered as either eosphorus (dawn-bringer) or phosphorus (light-bringer). As eosphorus it appears in the Septuagint rendering of Isaiah 14:12. Eosphorus is more explicit as "morning star", though phosphorus is used to mean the same.
In 2 Peter 1:19 the Greek text refers to Jesus as the phosphorus,
"
And we have the prophetic word more fully confirmed, to which you will do well to pay attention as to a lamp shining in a dark place, until the day dawns and the morning star (phosphorus)
rises in your hearts"
The Latin text translates the same passage as:
"et habemus firmiorem propheticum sermonem cui bene facitis adtendentes quasi lucernae lucenti in caliginoso loco donec dies inlucescat et lucifer oriatur in cordibus vestris"
Here Jesus is, in the Latin, called "lucifer", that is, the phosphorus, the morning star.
Indeed the Latin word "lucifer" was used in Christian antiquity to refer to Christ, and is still used this way in Christian hymns, such as the Paschal Exsultet (Easter Proclamation), in the final stanza of the Latin hymn this is sung:
"
Flammas eius lúcifer matutínus invéniat:
ille, inquam, lúcifer, qui nescit occásum.
Christus Fílius tuus,
qui, regréssus ab ínferis, humáno géneri serénus illúxit,
et vivit et regnat in sæcula sæculórum."
In English:
"
May this flame be found still burning
by the Morning Star:
the one Morning Star who never sets,
Christ your Son,
who, coming back from death's domain,
has shed his peaceful light on humanity,
and lives and reigns for ever and ever."
Again, in antiquity, "Lucifer" was actually a Christian name, it's the name of several bishops, for example St. Lucifer of Cagliari, a 4th century bishop. St. Athansius in some of his personal correspondences writes to a fellow bishop named Lucifer.
It wasn't until the middle ages that some exegetes saw imbedded in the text of Isaiah 14:12 a possible figurative, or more specifically anagogical sense--a more secret meaning behind the text. In such an anagogical sense some saw the figure being addressed as a mirror reflection of the devil's own pride and fall. And thus this sense has been maintained through succeeding generations.
But is it valid? Is reading this special anagogical meaning into the text a fair and proper form of exegesis? I don't believe it is. I believe it is eisegesis, it is reading into the text something that simply isn't there and never has been there. It is presuming something and then forcing the text to mean something the author never intended.
So, no, God didn't create a being called "lucifer" because there is no such thing.
There is Satan or the Devil (haShaytan and Diabolos) respectively. But the devil's name is not and never has been "Lucifer".
-CryptoLutheran