Why would you feel you have to change the word in the verse? That is a direct distortion. I know you would like the Bible to say mankind, but it doesn't.
I think you're making an issue out of nothing here. Intentional deception is not what was being done, but an explanation of the word. Even though you believe the sabbath only applied to the jews, surely you wouldn't say it applied only to the male jews would you?
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