KJV Only

[Ave Maria]

I voted any translation but I am not a dispensationalist.

 

[Dennis_Hogg]

John,

This issue was resolved for me many years ago after reading Gail Riplinger's book. A perfect book? no. A zealous defense? yes. Convincing? very.

I have read much of Riplinger's book. I have also read some of those who have critiqued her work. Many have done so, and they all raised the same kind of complaints. The complaints are about her misquotations and misrepresentations. I looked up a few myself, and found that the critics were telling the truth, and that Riplinger was not. I would really encourage you to do the same. See if you come to your same conclusion after you have verified some of her "facts"

 

[christianmomof3]

I like having lots of different translations to compare. We don't have the originals and even if we did, no one who is alive today could actually read it and know the exact meanings of all of the words and idioms in it.
So, when we read the Bible, we should do so prayerfully, so that we have the Lord Himself to guide our understanding. I think the 1901 American Standard is more accurate than the King James, although King James is a good translation as well. New American Standard is also good and so is Darby and so is the Recovery Version.

 

[JM]

If you don't have the orginals, what's your final authority? A bunch of untrustworthy copies?

 

[TheScottsMen]

We don't have the originals and even if we did, no one who is alive today could actually read it and know the exact meanings of all of the words and idioms in it.

Was that written with any Greek knowledge?? Of course we could translate it. The copies that we have today were from the originals. This doesn't mean we could translate it perfectly, we are human.

 

[FreeinChrist]

1. If the KJV is error free in the English, then why did they fail to correctly distinguish between "Devil and Demons" (Mt 4:1-DIABOLOS and Jn 13:2-DAIMONIZOMAI) ; "hades and hell" (see Lk 16:23-HADES and Mt 5:22-GEENNA; Note: Hades is distinct from hell because hades is thrown into hell after judgement: Rev 20:14)
2. Why would KJV translators render Gen 15:6 which is quoted in identical Greek form by Paul in Rom 4:3, 9, 22; Gal 3:6, in FOUR DIFFERENT WAYS? Why are they creating distinctions were none exist?
3. Was "Baptist" John's last name according to Matthew 14: 8 and Luke 7:20 in the KJV?
4. Did Jesus teach a way for men to be "worshiped" according to Luke 14:10 in the KJV, contradicting the first commandment and what He said in Luke 4: 8? [Remember — you may not go the Greek for any "light" if you are a KJV-Only!]
5. Was a man correct in his statement "Tithes of all I possess" Lk 18:12? Tithes were paid on income, not on assets.
6. Heb 4:3,5 the KJV misquotes Ps 95:1 The NIV and NASB do not.
7. Isa 45:7 KJV “I make peace, and create evil:” NASB: “Causing well-being and creating calamity”. Is God the source of Evil?
8. Does the inclusion of the word “unknown” in 1 Cor 14:4 (not found in Greek) allow some to mis-represent that tounges were actually unintelligible babble instead of identifiable foreign languages? Good translations place the word “unknown” in italics or omit it altogether.
9. Which is the better understanding of Ex 20:13 “Thou shalt not kill”, or “Thou shalt not commit murder”? How many liberals use the weaker translation to condemn capital punishment, or consider this as a contradiction due to a weak translation?
10. Is the Holy Spirit really an “it”, a neuter “thing” as is implied by Rom 8:16, 26? You can be assured that if the KJV had a masculine pronoun here and any other English translation had a neuter pronoun that Riplinger and every other KJV only proponent out there would be all over this one. They never mention this one. It is just as wrong for a Bible to diminish the personality of the Holy Spirit as it is to diminish any other Personality of the Trinity. In order to hold a KJV only position, you must insist that the use of “He” here is a corruption and that the only tolerable understanding is “it”– WOW!!

Interesting...Where did you get this?

 

[Dennis_Hogg]

I pasted it out of a long "paper" I wrote to a former pastor who is KJV only. (He never replied to it.) I got some of the stuff from a website. I can't post links, but search for questions for KJV only. I think many of the questions cam from an online paper by Edgar J Godspeed

 

[eph3Nine]

The KJO controversy has caused MORE division in the church, the Body of Christ, than just about anything in this day and age. Its yet another tool used by our enemy to DIVIDE The Body! You would think folks would recognize that, instead of jumping on yet another bandwagon that says "heres another point of legalism for immature believers to fight over"

God never called us to promote a TRANSLATION and divide the Body of Christ over which one is the BEST!

He called us to promote a MESSAGE...Salvation to all by Grace alone thru faith alone in the finished work of Christ alone.

 

[eph3Nine]

I have read much of Riplinger's book. I have also read some of those who have critiqued her work. Many have done so, and they all raised the same kind of complaints. The complaints are about her misquotations and misrepresentations. I looked up a few myself, and found that the critics were telling the truth, and that Riplinger was not. I would really encourage you to do the same. See if you come to your same conclusion after you have verified some of her "facts"

Amen Dennis...Riplingers book is a joke and she is anything but an honest and reliable writer in her representation of what she thinks are "facts".