Kings James Version why the best ?

Timothew

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I can see you like it.

It sounds stilted to me. Maketh? Leadeth? Yea? Thou art? Thou preparest? Mine enemies? Thou annointest? Runneth over?

Excuseth me, an insect flyest over mine couch and I must swatest it, lest I becometh overrun with pestilence-eth.

Does the King James Translation really say "shepard", or was that a typo?
 
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OzSpen

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This is much more beautiful, elegant and poetic for me:
Psalm 23 (NIV)

1 The Lord is my shepherd, I lack nothing.
2 He makes me lie down in green pastures,
he leads me beside quiet waters,
3 he refreshes my soul.
He guides me along the right paths
for his name’s sake.
4 Even though I walk
through the darkest valley,
I will fear no evil,
for you are with me;
your rod and your staff,
they comfort me.

5 You prepare a table before me
in the presence of my enemies.
You anoint my head with oil;
my cup overflows.
6 Surely your goodness and love will follow me
all the days of my life,
and I will dwell in the house of the Lord
forever.

Sincerely, Oz
 
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Timothew

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I agree, it is beautiful because of its simple elegance. Form follows function. I don't have ape-hanger handlebars on my Harley because they serve no purpose. I think tall handlebars are stupid and ugly. We don't need to dress up the bible in archaic language to make it beautiful either. It's beautiful because it is God breathed.
 
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OzSpen

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I agree. I studied that archaic 'elegance' when I was in high school and studied Shakespeare's Henry VIII, Merchant of Venice, etc. But to continue to use that language is an anachronism.

That NIV translation of Psalm 23 is beautiful in its contemporary elegance.

However, its "God-breathed" nature applies not to the NIV (KJV or any other translation) but to the original Hebrew of Psalm 23.

Oz
 
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Keachian

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rdcast

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benelchi

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The KJV is a good translation (not the best) but, like all translations, it has its weaknesses. Here are a couple of the significant weaknesses of the text.

1) There have been many advancements in the study of biblical Greek, Aramaic, and Hebrew over the centuries since the KJV was translated. We have many, many more manuscripts available to us today than did the translators of the KJV.

2) The English langauge has changed significantly since the KJV was translated. Many passages that were correctly translated and correctly understood by the original readers of the KJV are misunderstood by modern readers today. The difficulty isn't, for the most part, the archaic langauge but words that are commonly used today with very different meanings than were used in the 17th century. Some examples are: let, meat, conversation; all of these words (and many more) carried a very different understanding in the 17th century when compared to English today and since very few KJV only people have bothered to learn 17th century English misunderstandings of the text are prevalent in KJV only circles. Even things about the langauge that are valuable to understand, like the differentiation of the 2nd person singular and plural pronouns in 17th century English, are rarely understood by KJV only people today. To truly understand 17th century English requires one to stop making assumptions about the words they think they understand and go and look up those words in dictionaries that provide 17th century English definitions. It is hard work that is rarely ever done by KJV only advocates.
 
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rdcast

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You could very well be right on some of the things you've said, but the funny thing is, here in this thread, I'm defending the KJV while at the same time I'm in another thread defending its alternatives.
 
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benelchi

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You could very well be right on some of the things you've said, but the funny thing is, here in this thread, I'm defending the KJV while at the same time I'm in another thread defending its alternatives.

I have been on both sides of the fence myself at times. One of the things that often strikes me funny is that people will often try to prove a KJV translation wrong (or KJV only people will try to prove other translations wrong) when, in some cases, both translations say essentially the same thing; the difference is often just a misunderstanding of 17th century English rather than a different choice made by the translators. For example these verses are identical in meaning but changes to the English langauge make them appear to be slightly different.

KJV Psalm 37:14 The wicked have drawn out the sword, and have bent their bow, to cast down the poor and needy, and to slay such as be of upright conversation.

NIV Psalm 37:14 The wicked draw the sword and bend the bow to bring down the poor and needy, to slay those whose ways are upright.


KJV Romans 1:13 Now I would not have you ignorant, brethren, that oftentimes I purposed to come unto you, (but was let hitherto,) that I might have some fruit among you also, even as among other Gentiles.

NIVO Romans 1:13 I do not want you to be unaware, brothers, that I planned many times to come to you (but have been prevented from doing so until now) in order that I might have a harvest among you, just as I have had among the other Gentiles. (Rom 1:13 NIV)

Ironically, many discussions about which translation is better presume a difference in meaning that did not exist in the 17th century.
 
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L0NEW0LF

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1611 KJV, Circa 1900 PCE KJV, 1560 Geneva Bible, 1599 Geneva Bible, ESV, NRSV, NASB, HCSB; use them all, among others. They all provide a wealth of knowledge and information and they all point to Christ. The PCE KJV is my most trusted and favorite, but all of these Bibles have a use.
 
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rdcast

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Both the NIVO and NIV here have more severely bent their translation for the sake of a more pleasing vernacular flow. I can't say I can agree with that. The newer translations do more and more of this.
 
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rdcast

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I too am fond of my 1599 Geneva Bible.
 
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OzSpen

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The KJV is so inspired that I'm convinced blessings should pass from it just by holding it's binding in our repentant hands.
On what basis do you grant inspiration to the KJV? There is only one group of books that is theopneustos (God-breathed) according to 2 Tim 3:16, and they are the Scriptures (here referring to the OT) in the original languages.

Don't you understand how many errors were made in the original KJV translation?

[FONT=&quot]The 1769 revision of the KJV, which we use today, differs from the 1611 edition in about 75,000 details (Goodspeed in Geisler & Nix 1986:568). On YouTube there is a side by side comparison of the 1611 and 1769 editions of the KJV. A copy of the 1611 edition of the KJV is currently available for sale as The Bible: Authorized King James Version with Apocrypha (Oxford World’s Classics).

[/FONT] [FONT=&quot]Bruce Metzger (1992:99-103) has summarised the situation:[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]So, which is your "inspired" version of the KJV? Do you read the 1611 edition?

[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Oz

References:
Geisler, N L & Nix, W M 1986. A General Introduction to the Bible, rev ed. Chicago: Moody Press.
[/FONT] [FONT=&quot]Metzger, B. M. 1992. The Text of the New Testament: Its Transmission, Corruption,and Restoration (3rd ed). New York/Oxford: Oxford University Press.[/FONT]
 
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OzSpen

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You could very well be right on some of the things you've said, but the funny thing is, here in this thread, I'm defending the KJV while at the same time I'm in another thread defending its alternatives.
So what is that a description of? Confusion or something worse?

Oz
 
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OzSpen

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Both the NIVO and NIV here have more severely bent their translation for the sake of a more pleasing vernacular flow. I can't say I can agree with that. The newer translations do more and more of this.
So do you read the original languages of Hebrew/Aramaic and Greek to know this?

Oz
 
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