could Jesus have possibly told his Jewish disciples that the bread and wine were his body and blood, even if just in a metaphorical sense, let alone in a real sense, as is believed by Catholics, Eastern Orthodox, Oriental Orthodox and some Lutherans and some Anglicans?
It has been decades since I have read my Old Testament and so I had long ago forgotten about this very strong Jewish prohibition. Somehow, I ran across this issue a few weeks back and it has been troubling me ever since. It simply makes no sense to me that Jesus would have told his Jewish disciples to consume blood, something strictly forbidden by Jewish law, by consuming his body and blood. Who wishes to attempt to explain this very strong contradiction?
It has been decades since I have read my Old Testament and so I had long ago forgotten about this very strong Jewish prohibition. Somehow, I ran across this issue a few weeks back and it has been troubling me ever since. It simply makes no sense to me that Jesus would have told his Jewish disciples to consume blood, something strictly forbidden by Jewish law, by consuming his body and blood. Who wishes to attempt to explain this very strong contradiction?