- Apr 30, 2013
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could Jesus have possibly told his Jewish disciples that the bread and wine were his body and blood, even if just in a metaphorical sense, let alone in a real sense, as is believed by Catholics, Eastern Orthodox, Oriental Orthodox and some Lutherans and some Anglicans?
It has been decades since I have read my Old Testament and so I had long ago forgotten about this very strong Jewish prohibition. Somehow, I ran across this issue a few weeks back and it has been troubling me ever since. It simply makes no sense to me that Jesus would have told his Jewish disciples to consume blood, something strictly forbidden by Jewish law, by consuming his body and blood. Who wishes to attempt to explain this very strong contradiction?
John is written from the perspective of the early Christian community, and not the literal words of Jesus, necessarily.
It's fairly clear that the Eucharist was understood among early Christians as a rite similar to mystery religions of the ancient near east. It was not understood as a test of loyalty, as in modern evangelicalism, but an actual participation in what the sacred symbols represent.
I'm sure it did shock peoples sensibilities, that was the whole point of it. It's an act that was meant to touch the transcendent and break down traditional barriers.
Jesus himself seems to have criticized the purity culture of 2nd Temple Judaism, so I don't think its surprising he may have administered religious symbols that crossed boundaries. After all, what goes into your body doesn't make you unclean, only what comes out of it.
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