John 4:1

[skylark1]

John 4:1

1When therefore the LORD knew how the Pharisees had heard that Jesus made and baptized more disciples than John,

2(Though Jesus himself baptized not, but his disciples,)

3He left Judaea, and departed again into Galilee.​

This verse came up in a different forum, when discussing the difference between the baptism of repentance that John the Baptist offered, and the baptism of Christ.

Acts 19

1And it came to pass, that, while Apollos was at Corinth, Paul having passed through the upper coasts came to Ephesus: and finding certain disciples,

2He said unto them, Have ye received the Holy Ghost since ye believed? And they said unto him, We have not so much as heard whether there be any Holy Ghost.

3And he said unto them, Unto what then were ye baptized? And they said, Unto John's baptism.

4Then said Paul, John verily baptized with the baptism of repentance, saying unto the people, that they should believe on him which should come after him, that is, on Christ Jesus.

5When they heard this, they were baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus.​

In John 4:1, when the disciples of Christ baptized, was it a baptism of repentance as when John baptized, or baptism into Christ?

Paul wrote:

Romans 6

3Or don't you know that all of us who were baptized into Christ Jesus were baptized into his death?​

If the disciples of Christ were baptizing others into Christ, then how were those who were baptized into Christ baptized into his death?



Thanks!

 

[justified]

"baptism into Christ" is a metaphor; Mark reads that John had a baptism "of repentance for the forgiveness of sins" --> Christian baptism is the same thing.

 

[skylark1]

"baptism into Christ" is a metaphor; Mark reads that John had a baptism "of repentance for the forgiveness of sins" --> Christian baptism is the same thing.

Why then did Paul differentiate between them? Why were the people who said that they had only received the baptism of John then baptized into Christ? (Acts 19)

 

[justified]

Why then did Paul differentiate between them? Why were the people who said that they had only received the baptism of John then baptized into Christ? (Acts 19)

It's a very good question to which I don't know the answer. According to Acts 19, the difference appears to be the reception of the Holy Spirit.

 

[WAB]

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It's a very good question to which I don't know the answer. According to Acts 19, the difference appears to be the reception of the Holy Spirit.

The difference is in the dispensation under which each was performed.

John the Baptist was the last O.T. Prophet. What he did was proclaim that Yeshua was/is the promised Messiah, and it was not till the death, burial and resurrection/ascent of the Lord until the New Covenant came into effect.

 

[skylark1]

The difference is in the dispensation under which each was performed.

John the Baptist was the last O.T. Prophet. What he did was proclaim that Yeshua was/is the promised Messiah, and it was not till the death, burial and resurrection/ascent of the Lord until the New Covenant came into effect.

Thanks for the response, but it didn't really answer my question. Maybe that is due to me not explaining myself very well.

This is the heart of my quesiton:


In John 4:1, when the disciples of Christ baptized, was it a baptism of repentance as when John baptized, or baptism into Christ?

Paul wrote:

Romans 6

3Or don't you know that all of us who were baptized into Christ Jesus were baptized into his death?​

If the disciples of Christ were baptizing others into Christ (before his death, burial, and resurrection), then how were those who were baptized into Christ baptized into his death?


Thanks in advance for any responses!