john 20.28 nom for nom.

[Der Alte]

Do you know the difference between the Nominative and the Vocative and do you understand that the Nominative for Vocative is used often in the New Testament writings?

I think you have a good point. In this case I think it would be good also to notice, God dwells in Jesus, Jesus is the temple of God. So, it is possible that there was Jesus and God at the same time, God in Jesus and that is why it was said what was said.
Don't you believe that I am in the Father, and the Father in me? The words that I tell you, I speak not from myself; but the Father who lives in me does his works…
John 14:10

You won't be getting a response from him. He was banned a few years ago.

 

[frogface62]

You won't be getting a response from him. He was banned a few years ago.

now that is embarrasing. Thanks for the heads up

 

[not under law]

John 20.28 is no proof that Jesus is god because god and lord are in the nominative case and not the vocative case. Every time Jesus is addressed as Lord in the bible he is addressed in the vocative case of lord (kurie) and never in the nominative case of Lord (kurios). Therefore, Thomas was talking about god and lord to Jesus not addressing Jesus as god and lord. So how was Thomas talking about god and lord to Jesus? He was uttering an exclamation, just as anyone would in that situation. Or it was an incomplete sentence, after all we all utter incomplete sentences. Some scholars believe it was an incomplete sentence, I lean more towards an exclamation but don't rule out an incomplete sentence.

Also, it is asserted by scholars that the nominative is used for the vocative, but I have as yet to see even one clear cut example of the nominative being used for the vocative, so I'm not sure that is correct. Even in mark where Mark uses the nomative when quoting Jesus "my god,my god why has thou forsaken me", it is possible that Jesus uttered one in hebrew, then one in aramaic, and that the utterances where different. one case Jesus is excalming in utter aggony, and not addresssing god with "my god my god", in the luke version which is a translation of the aramaic and not the hebrew, Jesus adresses God in the vocative. So why is one version (Mark) in hebrew, and the other version
(Luke in aramaic? obviously because jesus said it two times once in hebrew and once in aramaic. anybody who speaks multiple languages knows that people often swithch back and forth between those languages, every met a bilingual mexican who didint'? I haven't.

Or possibly it was because Thomas was an Israelite:
Moses and Aaron, Nadab and Abihu, and the seventy elders of Israel went up 10 and saw the God of Israel. Under his feet was something like a pavement made of lapis lazuli, as bright blue as the sky. 11 But God did not raise his hand against these leaders of the Israelites; they saw God, and they ate and drank.
Ex24:9-11

No man hath seen God at anytime 1John4:12