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Jesus lying in a cave?

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tqpix

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An exerpt from a review of an Interlinear Bible, in which the Textus Receptus was used in translating Greek to English:

In my further studying of the scriptures, I found that although this is Hebrew and Greek, it is still not the original written text that is found here. The Greek used is not the Ancient Greek text it was originally written in. Thus, we still have Jesus lying in a "manger" rather than a "cave" as it was originally documented. Losing these facts in translation still disturbs me, but I still appreciate the information made available.
Any comments?
 

kua2u

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:wave: :wave: :wave: Losing facts scares me too. But the example of the cave/manger one doesn't bother me a lot. Both represent humble beginnings. It could mean that many a Christmas play needed a guy standing in front of a cave saying, "threre's no more room here!"


It's the scriptures that rip people apart and make them judge one another that scares me.:sigh:
 
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daveleau

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tqpix said:
An exerpt from a review of an Interlinear Bible, in which the Textus Receptus was used in translating Greek to English:


Any comments?
A major issue seems to be that the person is committing a major exegetical mistake. The ancient Greek is not the Greek of the NT. It is Hellenistic Greek or Biblical Greek or Late Greek, depending on whose work you are referencing. All are the same, just under different names. The ancient Greek evolved from the time when Homer wrote to the time when the Bible was written (or the OT was translated to Greek in the Septuigant). Just as Old English words have different meanings to today's English, ancient Greek had different meanings for words than the Greek of the Biblical times.
 
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