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Jesus has broken the Sabbath

Cornelius8L

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“You won’t let me”. Do you even hear yourself.


I would consider leaving the judging to God, He will be all our righteous Judge. If preaching God’s Word is a sin as you claim, than I trust Jesus to Judge fairly come Judgement Day, just as we all have to stand before Him one day soon based on what we have done, which is what I would be more concerned with. Jesus said it wasn’t a sin in scripture, doing God’s work is not a sin, just like doctors who see people on the Sabbath for emergencies not a sin, but these are similar arguments the Pharisees made against Jesus and the apostles looking closely to see what they could accuse them of.

Not going to respond further so agree to disagree.
Yes, I said what I meant. People can’t just present their thoughts without a solid foundation for their beliefs. If the house collapses when the wind blows, should we just say "it’s okay"? That’s not what the Truth is about. The scripture, which is inspired by God, also says in 1 Corinthians 2:15, "The spiritual man judges all things, but he himself is not subject to anyone’s judgment." So don’t evade accountability by leaving judgment to God when you can’t defend your beliefs while continuing to teach others.
 
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Cornelius8L

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Jesus said it wasn’t a sin in scripture, doing God’s work is not a sin, just like doctors who see people on the Sabbath for emergencies not a sin, but these are similar arguments the Pharisees made against Jesus and the apostles looking closely to see what they could accuse them of.
Jesus said that doing good on the Sabbath is not a sin, which is why he healed freely. However, a doctor receives payment after treatment, and do not do it for free during Sabbath. You cannot equate free acts with those that involve payment. The Pharisees accused Jesus because they misunderstood the scriptures regarding what constitutes work. Work involves wages.
 
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Cornelius8L

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If one knew how little SDA Pastors make on salary, no money from the collection tray like most of the other churches, would know they are not dedicating themselves to God for the money. God knows this, thats what matters.
Buddhist monks today are evidence that their preachers do not need a salary for their preaching activities. Similarly, Jesus did not receive a salary during his three years of ministry, and Paul made tents to support himself. According to scripture, priests were provided with food, not money. So why do pastors receive a salary when monks do not? A better solution for pastors to avoid breaking the Sabbath while still receiving a salary would be to hold church services on Sunday and rest on Saturday, or to support themselves in a manner similar to Paul by earning their own living.
 
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daq

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Emun's post has already answered your questions.

Hi Bob, regarding Emun's OP and the thread topic:

The passage is about the calendar and the commencement of the daily Shabbat hour, which has been discussed quite a few times in various threads on this particular board, and which most seem to choose not to believe because of bias and paradigm, (their beliefs concerning the Shabbat being only the full day of the seventh day of the week).

Moreover the thread topic is a logical fallacy, (essentially begging the question), because it assumes that the Master instructed the man to break the Shabbat when that is not what is being taught in the passage. A so-called plain reading of the text simply cannot be correct if the one doing the plain reading of the text is ignorant of the Torah and therefore has no background information concerning what is actually transpiring in the passage in question. What is being taught is that the rulers of the people were off in their estimation of the timing of the daily Shabbat hour: they were wrong, and that is why the Master says, "My Father works until just now" or "right now", as in right this very moment, (εως αρτι).

Would you not agree that when the Master says until right now, or this very moment, that is exactly what he means?

That means the Shabbat hour had not yet commenced until this exact time when the Master says so in the text, in John 5:17, and therefore they were wrong in their timing for likely having insulated the Shabbat hour by adding a half hour before to insure that no one broke it, as they often did with many of the commandments. In "putting a hedge about the commandment" they disallowed the legality of this healing which would have occurred during their own hedge time, likely the half hour before the actual Shabbat commenced.

John 5:25 KJV
25 Verily, verily, I say unto you, The hour is coming, and now is, when the dead shall hear the voice of the Son of God: and they that hear shall live.

That is the Shabbat hour which is taught in the opening creation account and occurs in every day of the year, on the sacred calendar day, which is seven yamim-hours in a yom-day, (while the civil calendar day is twelve yom-hours in a yom-day). The opening creation account is the foundational teaching, the sacred calendar day, from which the full day of the weekly Shabbat is also understood. The one does not void the other, both are taught in the opening creation account: but the sacred calendar day is the prototype or foundational principle from which the weekly Shabbat is derived. Without an understanding of the calendar such things are hidden.

Moreover the matt or mattress in John 5 is almost assuredly the same type mentioned in 1 Samuel 19:13-16, (mistakenly rendered as a pillow in some translations, so I will quote the YLT instead of the KJV below). This mattress was more like a heavy blanket and was typically made of goats' hair. It could be folded up into a pillow as it is in the Samuel passage: but the words for mattress and pillow are not the same in the following passage.

1 Samuel 19:13-16 YLT
13 and Michal taketh the teraphim, and layeth on the bed, and the mattress of goats' hair she hath put for his pillows, and covereth with a garment.
14 And Saul sendeth messengers to take David, and she saith, 'He is sick.'
15 And Saul sendeth the messengers to see David, saying, 'Bring him up in the bed unto me,' --to put him to death.
16 And the messengers come in, and lo, the teraphim are on the bed, and the mattress of goats' hair, for his pillows.

This word for a mattress is transliterated as kbiyr in the Hebrew text, very similar to the Greek word transliterated as krabbatos in the N/T, in general, as also in the John passage. If the matt or mattress speaks of this type then it is not difficult to imagine what happened: the healed man took up his matt by rolling it up into a roll and carried it with him because it was most likely the only possession he had apart from the clothes he wore.

In addition to these things the man had been held in his infirmity for thirty and eight years: this time span is mentioned in one other place in the scripture, and it is the time from Kadeshbarnea until the crossing of the brook Zered, until the time when all the men of war had died out from the congregation, recounted in Deuteronomy 2:14, and includes many supernal things which pertain to this passage in John 5, including a full discussion of giants, (even the bed-frame of Og the king of Bashan is mentioned if one follows the passage in detail).

In the supernal Way of the Meshiah and his Apostles this man had just come into contact with the dead, and the one who had died suddenly next to him was the one who had held him in his infirmity thirty and eight years, the years of the rebellion in the desert. He was now required to undergo purification, (which is probably why the Master later finds him in the temple), and that purification was to be performed in seven yamim, and the third yom and the seventh yom the man is required to cleanse with the water of the purification. In the scared calendar day that seventh yom is the seventh hour of the sacred calendar day no matter what day of the year it is because that is the Shabbat hour in each and every day.

Not only all these things, but even everything which has come into contact with the one who is deemed unclean by the dead must either be destroyed or cleansed and purified, by fire and-or by water.

Numbers 19:11-22 KJV
11 He that toucheth the dead body [nephesh, soul] of any man shall be unclean seven days.
12 He shall purify himself with it on the third day, and on the seventh day he shall be clean: but if he purify not himself the third day, then the seventh day he shall not be clean.
13 Whosoever toucheth the dead body [nephesh, soul] of any man that is dead, and purifieth not himself, defileth the tabernacle of the LORD; and that soul shall be cut off from Israel: because the water of separation was not sprinkled upon him, he shall be unclean; his uncleanness is yet upon him.
14 This is the law, when a man dieth in a tent: all that come into the tent, and all that is in the tent, shall be unclean seven days.
15 And every open vessel, which hath no covering bound upon it, is unclean.
16 And whosoever toucheth one that is slain with a sword in the open fields, or a dead body, [the dead] or a bone of a man, or a grave, shall be unclean seven days.
17 And for an unclean person they shall take of the ashes of the burnt heifer of purification for sin, and running water shall be put thereto in a vessel:
18 And a clean person shall take hyssop, and dip it in the water, and sprinkle it upon the tent, and upon all the vessels, and upon the persons that were there, and upon him that touched a bone, or one slain, or one dead, or a grave:
19 And the clean person shall sprinkle upon the unclean on the third day, and on the seventh day: and on the seventh day he shall purify himself, and wash his clothes, and bathe himself in water, and shall be clean at even.
20 But the man that shall be unclean, and shall not purify himself, that soul shall be cut off from among the congregation, because he hath defiled the sanctuary of the LORD: the water of separation hath not been sprinkled upon him; he is unclean.
21 And it shall be a perpetual statute unto them, that he that sprinkleth the water of separation shall wash his clothes; and he that toucheth the water of separation shall be unclean until even.
22 And whatsoever the unclean person toucheth shall be unclean; and the soul that toucheth it shall be unclean until even.

The interpretation of this later includes all vessels or works made of goats' hair:

Numbers 31:19-24 KJV
19 And do ye abide without the camp seven days: whosoever hath killed any person, and whosoever hath touched any slain, purify both yourselves and your captives on the third day, and on the seventh day.
20 And purify all your raiment, and all that is made of skins, and all work of goats' hair, and all things made of wood.
21 And Eleazar the priest said unto the men of war which went to the battle, This is the ordinance of the law which the LORD commanded Moses;
22 Only the gold, and the silver, the brass, the iron, the tin, and the lead,
23 Every thing that may abide the fire, ye shall make it go through the fire, and it shall be clean: nevertheless it shall be purified with the water of separation: and all that abideth not the fire ye shall make go through the water.
24 And ye shall wash your clothes on the seventh day, and ye shall be clean, and afterward ye shall come into the camp.

The cured man had essentially one possession apart from the clothes he wore: a kbiyr or krabbatos, a matt that was like a thick blanket which could also be used as a pillow, a covering, or even raiment, and the kbiyr or krabbatos was therefore probably made of goats' hair just as in the Samuel passage quoted above.

The cured man was therefore required by the Torah to undergo purification in both the third yom and the seventh yom, and to purify all his raiment, including both his clothes and his matt, and that is plainly stated as necessarily to be done in the seventh yom, (Num 19:19), and this seventh yom is the Shabbat hour of the sacred calendar day which is the seven yamim of creation in each and every day of the world for as long as the earth and world endure. His purification would likely commence on the following day because his first purification is to be done in the third yom, (the first hour of the sacred calendar day, Yom Echad), so the cured man likely went immediately to the temple in order to report his healing to a priest and request a commencing of his purification process the next morning, and that is when and why the Master finds him in the temple: the cured man was fulfilling the Torah commandment.

The matt itself could not be left behind for someone else to dispose of because it was unclean. Whether or not there is a law against leaving an unclean vessel behind for someone else to dispose of, if you love your neighbor as yourself, you will not leave your waste for your neighbor to clean up, especially after you have just been healed and can now walk and carry your own matt.

The Yhudim in John 5 were wrong, even according to the Torah, for they neither saw nor perceived the spiritual warfare that had delivered the cured man from his spiritual captor of thirty and eight years, (the old man nature was put to death at the same time he was made whole or cured, John 5:14).

It was essentially no different than the commandment given to the cleansed leper in the following passage.

Matthew 8:2-4 KJV
2 And, behold, there came a leper and worshipped him, saying, Lord, if thou wilt, thou canst make me clean.
3 And Jesus put forth his hand, and touched him, saying, I will; be thou clean. And immediately his leprosy was cleansed.
4 And Jesus saith unto him, See thou tell no man; but go thy way, shew thyself to the priest, and offer the gift that Moses commanded, for a testimony unto them.
 
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Cornelius8L

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Really you relate muzzling an ox with preaching God’s Word. Looking to condemn much like the Pharisees did with the apostles and Jesus, no point in trying to reason together. Take care.
In case you didn't read the Bible enough, it is clearly stated that an ox is not allowed to work during the Sabbath. I often see @HIM agreeing with your posts, yet he seems unable to answer his own contradictions. While I hope that the one who agrees with you is God Himself, backing you with His Word in the scripture, instead of men.

Let me say this plainly: whatever you preach needs to be backed by scripture soberly and truthfully, which apparently, you don't always do. Can an ox work on the Sabbath? The answer, according to the Bible, is no.
 
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HIM

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The method of verification by asking questions is a technique often used by Jesus. For instance, in Matthew 22:45, He asks, "If David calls Him ‘Lord,’ how can He be David’s son?” By your logic, Jesus also nullifies what is written.

Yeah, but that is not what you are doing. You stated as @Bob S that we are commanded to work six days and if we don't work six days we are breaking the commandment. Because you thought that the commandment mandated that we must work the six other days.

Then when shown that It is not commanded that we have to work 6 days. BECAUSE The Grammar shows the command is in the clause Remember the sabbath day and keep it holy. AND THAT Verse nine is not being stated as a command as you were using. Only verse 8. It is a fact that We have 6 days to do all our work, but day seven is the Sabbath. And in it we are not to work and we are to keep the day Holy.

AND THAT IT IS A MATTER OF FACT, IT IS THE ONLY PLACE IN THE TEN COMMANDMENTS THE IMPERATIVE MOOD IS USED. AND THAT IT IS VERY INTERESTING FACT. IT IS AS IF GOD KNEW WE WOULD FORGET OR IGNORE THIS VERY COMMANDMENT.


With all that being shown to you. Rather than saying thank you for correcting your error or even acknowledging it in a positive manner at all. You move from sharing that falsehood and try to establish another false premise.


Since you are suggesting that Exodus 20:9-11 is not part of the Ten Commandments,
To which the following was given.

The rest of the commands are stated as facts. As in it is a fact you will honor your parents, have no other gods, make no idols or bow down to them, not steal, commit adultery, bear false witness, kill or covet. That is interesting also.



And rather than address that facts you come off with yet another question under a false premise without addressing what is given by anything relative.. You ask
Why don't you share how you observe the Sabbath according to any instructions you can find in scripture, rather than following unclear suggestions, recommendations, or traditions that are not as clear as the commandment
To which the following was given,
God is not unclear. We are called to cease by the very word Sabbath. And the rest of the commandment tell us what we are to cease from. We are to cease from all our occupation, and unbeknownst to some, that includes religious. That is why Jesus said that ministers were breaking the Sabbath but were guiltless. Some of us have things that the Lord has directed us to do also on the Sabbath. But some of us sadly are doing ministerial work also on the Sabbath because we want to and or think it is right. We will not judge that; it is an issue though.

There are things that are needful. But Most things unless directed from the Lord can be done the other six days. By doing things that can be put off we are not resting as we should on the 7th day. The day that He sanctified, set apart for such.

Sin is an issue everyday. But the most important part of the command is to keep it Holy. Do not defile it. This we do by not bringing sin into the day by our actions. The only way to do that is through God and His Spirit. So it helps to do religious activities that keep us centered. Pray and praise in fellowship with likeminded people through Him is seen throughout Scripture. The fact we are to not work also helps in this. Because sometimes somethings come up while we are working that bring out our fleshly nature and sin comes knocking. This also happens in ministerial work. So we need to be careful.


And yet again rather than acknowledge or even actually address what is written to you. You ask yet another question under yet another false premise

In the context of ordinary Christians, not ministers, what does the Lord instruct us to do on the Sabbath according to scripture?
We ALL are ministers. If we are not ministering and sharing the Gospel, then we are not what we profess. We all are to be about doing our Lord's business. Our Father worketh ministering, we work. For it is He that works in us both to will and do His good pleasure.

But as was said. Not all ministering needs done on Sabbath.
And to many are doing, but not through the Lord, so they are burden and not resting as they should. Because they are not as they are to be, but as they would be.


Is going to church and participating in the activities you mentioned the Truth instructed and Written by God, or is it a suggestion of men (Matthew 15:9)?
Another false premise. Never mentioned going to church. However It is a tradition that even Jesus held on the Sabbath Day.

We are called to pray without ceasing. Praise the Lord in all we do, always. To sing songs, spiritual songs, making a melody in our hearts unto the Lord. Always in everything. It is who we are meant to be and who we are in and through Christ.

But there is no better day, than the day God set apart, sanctified and hallowed. The 7th day where everyone is to rest from all their labors and do no work. No unnecessary distractions brought in from the world and the hustle and bustle that comes with it.


And now you start this.....
I often see @HIM.......yet he seems unable to answer his own contradictions.
.
 
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Cornelius8L

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Yeah, but that is not what you are doing. You stated as @Bob S that we are commanded to work six days and if we don't work six days we are breaking the commandment. Because you thought that the commandment mandated that we must work the six other days.

Then when shown that It is not commanded that we have to work 6 days. BECAUSE The Grammar shows the command is in the clause Remember the sabbath day and keep it holy. AND THAT Verse nine is not being stated as a command as you were using. Only verse 8. It is a fact that We have 6 days to do all our work, but day seven is the Sabbath. And in it we are not to work and we are to keep the day Holy.

AND THAT IT IS A MATTER OF FACT, IT IS THE ONLY PLACE IN THE TEN COMMANDMENTS THE IMPERATIVE MOOD IS USED. AND THAT IT IS VERY INTERESTING FACT. IT IS AS IF GOD KNEW WE WOULD FORGET OR IGNORE THIS VERY COMMANDMENT.


With all that being shown to you. Rather than saying thank you for correcting your error or even acknowledging it in a positive manner at all. You move from sharing that falsehood and try to establish another false premise.
Hold on, you missed one of the most important questions. I'll restate it here for you to answer. @Icyspark and @SabbathBlessings, feel free to join in.
So, is resting every day and keeping each day holy also considered observing the Sabbath?

Changing the order of my questions will, of course, alter the premise, which you have currently positioned incorrectly.

I have also asked this,
Are you saying that Proverbs 3:6 and Proverbs 16:3 only pertains to ministering work and cannot be applied to regular work in the corporate world?
Which is responding to this,
This we do by not bringing sin into the day by our actions. The only way to do that is through God and His Spirit. So it helps to do religious activities that keep us centered. Pray and praise in fellowship with likeminded people through Him is seen throughout Scripture. The fact we are to not work also helps in this. Because sometimes somethings come up while we are working that bring out our fleshly nature and sin comes knocking.
Please answer. @Icyspark and @SabbathBlessings, feel free to join in.


When I referred to 'ministers' in my earlier question below, I was responding to your context of ministers—those whom you mentioned as being directed by the Lord to work on the Sabbath, given your discussion of ministerial work.
That is why Jesus said that ministers were breaking the Sabbath but were guiltless. Some of us have things that the Lord has directed us to do also on the Sabbath. But some of us sadly are doing ministerial work also on the Sabbath because we want to and or think it is right. We will not judge that; it is an issue though.

There are things that are needful. But Most things unless directed from the Lord can be done the other six days.
In the context of ordinary Christians, not ministers, what does the Lord instruct us to do on the Sabbath according to scripture? Is going to church and participating in the activities you mentioned the Truth instructed and Written by God, or is it a suggestion of men (Matthew 15:9)?
In your subsequent response, you changed the context of 'ministers' from what you mentioned earlier.
We ALL are ministers. If we are not ministering and sharing the Gospel, then we are not what we profess. We all are to be about doing our Lord's business. Our Father worketh ministering, we work. For it is He that works in us both to will and do His good pleasure.

But as was said. Not all ministering needs done on Sabbath.
And to many are doing, but not through the Lord, so they are burden and not resting as they should. Because they are not as they are to be, but as they would be.
But regardless, God never stated that we could do any of those things on the Sabbath, unlike the times when He allowed priests to work on the Sabbath. Which you also mentioned here: "include religious"
We are to cease from all our occupation, and unbeknownst to some, that includes religious.
(It seems like a contradiction to me.)


By overlooking my earlier question below:
So, is resting every day and keeping each day holy also considered observing the Sabbath?
you are now referring to a 'tradition,' which is not a commandment.
Another false premise. Never mentioned going to church. However It is a tradition that even Jesus held on the Sabbath Day.

We are called to pray without ceasing. Praise the Lord in all we do, always. To sing songs, spiritual songs, making a melody in our hearts unto the Lord. Always in everything. It is who we are meant to be and who we are in and through Christ.

But there is no better day, than the day God set apart, sanctified and hallowed. The 7th day where everyone is to rest from all their labors and do no work. No unnecessary distractions brought in from the world and the hustle and bustle that comes with it.


And now you start this.....

So, once again,
So, is resting every day and keeping each day holy also considered observing the Sabbath?
 
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Bob S

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So, once again, is resting every day and keeping each day holy also considered observing the Sabbath?
Keeping a day Holy according to scripture is something, after rubbing elbows with Sabbath observers for over 40 years, I have never observed happening. Those who are asking others to keep the Sabbath are asking others to do something they themselves have never accomplished' Read Is58:13.

Another question, I believe pertinent, is where in all of scripture does God ever demand that Gentiles keep the day given to those who escaped from captivity in Egypt?
 
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daq

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Another question, I believe pertinent, is where in all of scripture does God ever demand that Gentiles keep the day given to those who escaped from captivity in Egypt?

In the previous chapter, John 4, the Master sits down by the well of Yakob and encounters the woman of Samaria, and it is about the sixth hour, which is the tzohorim midday hour for those familiar with the Torah and Prophets.

John 4:5-7 KJV
5 Then cometh he to a city of Samaria, which is called Sychar, near to the parcel of ground that Jacob gave to his son Joseph.
6 Now Jacob's well was there. Jesus therefore, being wearied with his journey, sat thus on the well: and it was about the sixth hour.
7 There cometh a woman of Samaria to draw water: Jesus saith unto her, Give me to drink.

This is the same time of day Peter goes up to the rooftop to pray at midday, about the sixth hour, (Acts 10:9).

The John 4 passage yet again signifies a specific hour of the day, according to the Testimony-Word of the Master, the midday hour of prayer, and herein, just as in the next chapter, John 5, the Master signifies the exact beginning of that hour of prayer right in the midst of his conversation with the woman at the well. When he says that the hour now is, it is the bottom of the sixth hour, for the midday hour is two lights, (the meaning of tzohorim), because it contains a half hour of the morning portion of the day and a half hour of the evening portion of the day, (the two halves of a twelve hour day are six hours each, and the evening portion of the daylight commences when the women go forth to draw water, Gen 24:11, Jhn 4:6-7, thus we have morning light and evening light, two lights, (tzohorim)).

The following is not a "demand", no, but is for those who love the Father and His Word:

John 4:21-24 KJV
21 Jesus saith unto her, Woman, believe me, the hour cometh, when ye shall neither in this mountain, nor yet at Jerusalem, worship the Father.
22 Ye worship ye know not what: we know what we worship: for salvation is of the Jews.
23 But the hour cometh, and now is, when the true worshippers shall worship the Father in spirit and in truth: for the Father seeketh such to worship him.
24 God is a Spirit: and they that worship him must worship him in spirit and in truth.

One may easily tell, by the shadows on the ground, when the sun has passed directly overhead and begins its westward trek across the sky toward sunset. He therefore signifies the midday hour and its commencement, right here in the text, for those who love the Father and believe His Word through His Son and wish to be pleasing to the Father.

With love, there is no need for a demand: that is an obstruction along the path toward understanding.
 
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Icyspark

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I'm just reading what it clearly and plainly says. Thanks for the effort though. I note you didn't choose to offer a counter to my exegesis. [You're right, because SabbathBlessings already did.]


Hi Yekcidmij,

From what I'm seeing, what you're doing is not exegesis but eisegesis. But I'm willing to see if you can properly exegete Exodus 34 and see if you can make it say that Moses wrote the Ten Commandments.

Let's start with the very beginning of the chapter and let's see what your exegesis reveals:

Exodus 34:1-3
The Lord said to Moses, “Chisel out two stone tablets like the first ones, and I will write on them the words that were on the first tablets, which you broke. 2 Be ready in the morning, and then come up on Mount Sinai. Present yourself to me there on top of the mountain. 3 No one is to come with you or be seen anywhere on the mountain; not even the flocks and herds may graze in front of the mountain.”

Some questions I'd like to see answered as you exegete this short passage of Scripture:
  1. Who is speaking?
  2. Who is being spoken to?
  3. What is to be done?
  4. Who will write on the stone tablets?
I await your exegetical response.

But for the grace of God go I,cyspark
 
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Palmfever

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John 5:18
For this reason therefore the Jews were seeking all the more to kill Him, because He not only was breaking the Sabbath, but also was calling God His own Father, making Himself equal with God.


I am aware that most commentators are of the opinion that Jesus did not break the Sabbath and that the Jews had falsely accused him, but if you look at it more closely, the Jews were actually right in their accusation that Jesus broke the Sabbath.

Reason:
The law says you shall not bear any burden on the Sabbath (Jeremiah 17:21-22). That this commandment is to be understood in exactly this way can be seen from the fact that God had a man stoned to death for carrying only wood on the Sabbath (Numbers 15:32-36). Jesus broke this commandment by commanding the healed man to carry his bed (John 5:10-11). The Jews were right in their accusation in this regard. And the clear proof that Jesus broke the Sabbath lies in the fact that John the author of the Gospel agrees with this in verse 18. If Jesus had not broken the Sabbath, he would not have expressed himself in this way but would have made it clear that the Jews were lying.

The reason why Jesus broke the ceremonial commandments like the Sabbath was not because he was a sinner for he is sinless but because he wanted to show that these commandments are to be understood spiritually. The Sabbath was never to be the seventh day of the week. The Sabbath was Jesus Christ, who is the true rest in which we should enter, as Paul said. Paul also said that God never wanted animal sacrifices, but that the true sacrifice is Jesus. The Old Testament is only a shadow, the New Testament is the fulfilment and the reality.
"The Sabbath was made for man, not man for the Sabbath."
When Christ was done creating Everything he rested but He isn't now in a state of rest.
John 5:17
But He answered them, “My Father is working until now, and I Myself am working.”
That day of rest was a 'Type and Shadow.'
Hebrews, 4:10
For he that is entered into his rest, he also hath ceased from his own works, as God did from his.
11 Let us labour therefore to enter into that rest, lest any man fall after the same example of unbelief.

Matt, 11:28 “Come to me, all you who are weary and burdened, and I will give you rest. 29 Take my yoke upon you and learn from me, for I am gentle and humble in heart, and you will find rest for your souls. 30 For my yoke is easy and my burden is light.”
 
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Yekcidmij

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Hi Yekcidmij,

From what I'm seeing, what you're doing is not exegesis but eisegesis. But I'm willing to see if you can properly exegete Exodus 34 and see if you can make it say that Moses wrote the Ten Commandments.

Let's start with the very beginning of the chapter and let's see what your exegesis reveals:

Exodus 34:1-3
The Lord said to Moses, “Chisel out two stone tablets like the first ones, and I will write on them the words that were on the first tablets, which you broke. 2 Be ready in the morning, and then come up on Mount Sinai. Present yourself to me there on top of the mountain. 3 No one is to come with you or be seen anywhere on the mountain; not even the flocks and herds may graze in front of the mountain.”

Some questions I'd like to see answered as you exegete this short passage of Scripture:
  1. Who is speaking?
  2. Who is being spoken to?
  3. What is to be done?
  4. Who will write on the stone tablets?
I await your exegetical response.

But for the grace of God go I,cyspark

Ex 34:27-28 make this abundantly clear. This is basic exegesis - reading the entire passage and not selecting some verses while ignoring other verses in the very passage in question. In Ex 34 27, the Lord tells Moses to write down the words. In Ex 34:28 Moses writes them down and they are called the "ten commandments." This is as explicit as a text can get. There is no discrepancy on my view between vss 1 and 27-28 either. As a prophet, Moses is God's instrument or agent, dutifully mediating God's presence and communicating God's commands. There no issue between vs 1 and 28 regarding whether or not God is writing or Moses is writing. Moses is God's instrument and designated agent and is mediating God's presence with the Israelite and writing down the commands (cf: Ex 4:16, 7:1).

In Ex 34:1, God says he will write the "devarim" and in Ex 34:27-28 the "deravim" are written.
In Ex 34:1, God says these devarim will be written on "tablets," and in Ex 34:27-28 they are written down on "tablets."
In Ex 34:10, God makes a "covenant" and in Ex 34:27-28 this "covenant" is written down.

There is no question in the passage that what Moses writes down in 34:27-28 is the same thing that's being referred to in 34:1,10 and the commands in Ex 34:11-26. This is an easy, literary, contextual reading of this passage.

There is also no change in who's being referred to in Ex 34:28 - "he" (ie, Moses) was "with the Lord," and "he" (ie ,still Moses) neither ate bread no drank water, and "he" (ie, still Moses) wrote on the tablets the "ten commandments" just as God had just commanded him in vs 27.

There is no doubt that in Ex 34:1-28, God establishes the covenant with Israel on the basis of the "ten commandments" listed in Ex 34:11-26, and these are written down by Moses on tablets. The text is direct and explicit.
 
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Icyspark

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Ex 34:27-28 make this abundantly clear. This is basic exegesis - reading the entire passage and not selecting some verses while ignoring other verses in the very passage in question. In Ex 34 27, the Lord tells Moses to write down the words. In Ex 34:28 Moses writes them down and they are called the "ten commandments." This is as explicit as a text can get. There is no discrepancy on my view between vss 1 and 27-28 either. As a prophet, Moses is God's instrument or agent, dutifully mediating God's presence and communicating God's commands. There no issue between vs 1 and 28 regarding whether or not God is writing or Moses is writing. Moses is God's instrument and designated agent and is mediating God's presence with the Israelite and writing down the commands (cf: Ex 4:16, 7:1).

In Ex 34:1, God says he will write the "devarim" and in Ex 34:27-28 the "deravim" are written.
In Ex 34:1, God says these devarim will be written on "tablets," and in Ex 34:27-28 they are written down on "tablets."
In Ex 34:10, God makes a "covenant" and in Ex 34:27-28 this "covenant" is written down.

There is no question in the passage that what Moses writes down in 34:27-28 is the same thing that's being referred to in 34:1,10 and the commands in Ex 34:11-26. This is an easy, literary, contextual reading of this passage.

There is also no change in who's being referred to in Ex 34:28 - "he" (ie, Moses) was "with the Lord," and "he" (ie ,still Moses) neither ate bread no drank water, and "he" (ie, still Moses) wrote on the tablets the "ten commandments" just as God had just commanded him in vs 27.

There is no doubt that in Ex 34:1-28, God establishes the covenant with Israel on the basis of the "ten commandments" listed in Ex 34:11-26, and these are written down by Moses on tablets. The text is direct and explicit.


Hi Yekcidmij,

Um, no. That's not an exegesis of Exodus 34:1-3. Neither indeed did you respond to any of my four questions.

What icy you doing is attempting to obfuscate the main and plain meaning of these three verses by throwing out Hebrew terms which don't appear overtly relevant to the topic at hand.

Let's start with the very beginning of the chapter and let's see what your exegesis reveals:

Exodus 34:1-3
The Lord said to Moses, “Chisel out two stone tablets like the first ones, and I will write on them the words that were on the first tablets, which you broke. 2 Be ready in the morning, and then come up on Mount Sinai. Present yourself to me there on top of the mountain. 3 No one is to come with you or be seen anywhere on the mountain; not even the flocks and herds may graze in front of the mountain.”

Some questions I'd like to see answered as you exegete this short passage of Scripture:
  1. Who is speaking?
  2. Who is being spoken to?
  3. What is to be done?
  4. Who will write on the stone tablets?
I await your exegetical response.


Exodus 34:1-3
The Lord (Yᵊhōvâ) said to Moses, (mōšê)
“Chisel (pāsal) out two (šᵊnayim) stone ('eḇen) tablets (lûaḥ) like the first ones,
and I will write (kāṯaḇ) on (ʿal) them the words (dāḇār) that were on the first tablets, (lûaḥ)
which you broke. (šāḇar)

I'm unsure why it's important to you to have Moses be the one who is writing the Ten Commandments, but your motivation may be interfering with your ability to rightly handle the word of God.

Part of properly exegeting a passage of the Bible is to compare Scripture with Scripture. You seem to want to jump right past relevant verses which have a direct impact on a proper interpretation of Exodus 34:28. Why is that? It's like you waved "devarim" at the text and then did a quick exodus (pun intended) so you could jump to a less clear text.

Exodus 34:1 has Yᵊhōvâ clearly speaking to mōšê (Questions 1 and 2 above).
Exodus 34:1 has Yᵊhōvâ telling mōšê to chisel out two stone tablets (Question 3).
Exodus 34:1 has Yᵊhōvâ saying, "I will write on the stone tablets" (Question 4).

I pray this helps.

But for the grace of God go I,cyspark
 
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daq

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Ex 34:27-28 make this abundantly clear. This is basic exegesis - reading the entire passage and not selecting some verses while ignoring other verses in the very passage in question. In Ex 34 27, the Lord tells Moses to write down the words. In Ex 34:28 Moses writes them down and they are called the "ten commandments." This is as explicit as a text can get. There is no discrepancy on my view between vss 1 and 27-28 either. As a prophet, Moses is God's instrument or agent, dutifully mediating God's presence and communicating God's commands. There no issue between vs 1 and 28 regarding whether or not God is writing or Moses is writing. Moses is God's instrument and designated agent and is mediating God's presence with the Israelite and writing down the commands (cf: Ex 4:16, 7:1).

In Ex 34:1, God says he will write the "devarim" and in Ex 34:27-28 the "deravim" are written.
In Ex 34:1, God says these devarim will be written on "tablets," and in Ex 34:27-28 they are written down on "tablets."
In Ex 34:10, God makes a "covenant" and in Ex 34:27-28 this "covenant" is written down.

There is no question in the passage that what Moses writes down in 34:27-28 is the same thing that's being referred to in 34:1,10 and the commands in Ex 34:11-26. This is an easy, literary, contextual reading of this passage.

There is also no change in who's being referred to in Ex 34:28 - "he" (ie, Moses) was "with the Lord," and "he" (ie ,still Moses) neither ate bread no drank water, and "he" (ie, still Moses) wrote on the tablets the "ten commandments" just as God had just commanded him in vs 27.

There is no doubt that in Ex 34:1-28, God establishes the covenant with Israel on the basis of the "ten commandments" listed in Ex 34:11-26, and these are written down by Moses on tablets. The text is direct and explicit.

Amen, it really is that clear. Moreover, if the body is the temple of Elohim, (and we are no more our own but purchased with a price), then the finger of Moshe is the finger of Elohim. Moreover the LXX helps to inform us why there are differences in the texts of Exo 20 and Exo 34, and that is by rendering the same word as both Rhema in one place and Logos in another, (Exo 34). The Rhema is the spoken Word, the Logos is the understanding of the spoken Word, and that is why the text of Exo 34 appears different from Exo 20.

These are clearly the first Ten:

Deuteronomy 4:13 OG LXX
13 και ανηγγειλεν υμιν την διαθηκην αυτου ην ενετειλατο υμιν ποιειν τα δεκα ρηματα και εγραψεν αυτα επι δυο πλακας λιθινας

Deuteronomy 4:12-13 LXX (Brenton Translation)
12 And the Lord spoke to you out of the midst of the fire a voice of words, which ye heard: and ye saw no likeness, only ye heard a voice.
13 And he announced to you his covenant, which he commanded you to keep, even the ten commandments; [τα δεκα ρηματα] and he wrote them on two tables of stone.

This concerns the Logos within the Rhema:

Exodus 34:28 OG LXX
28 και ην εκει μωυσης εναντιον κυριου τεσσαρακοντα ημερας και τεσσαρακοντα νυκτας αρτον ουκ εφαγεν και υδωρ ουκ επιεν και εγραψεν τα ρηματα ταυτα επι των πλακων της διαθηκης τους δεκα λογους

Exodus 34:28 LXX (Brenton Translation)
28 And Moses was there before the Lord forty days, and forty nights; he did not eat bread, and he did not drink water; and he wrote upon the tables these words of the covenant, the ten sayings [τους δεκα λογους].

In the Hebrew text both passages contain the same phrase, "aseret haDebarim", (or Devarim, as you also said), but they are not the same because of context: for clearly Exo 20 contains the spoken Word, which is Rhema, (and only later does it become written Word), while Exo 34 is clearly Logos, the understanding and reasoning behind the Rhema spoken Word. Once a person realizes this and begins to study it out the ten Words from Exodus 20 become rather apparent in the Exodus 34 passage.
 
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Icyspark

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Amen, it really is that clear. Moreover, if the body is the temple of Elohim, (and we are no more our own but purchased with a price), then the finger of Moshe is the finger of Elohim. Moreover the LXX helps to inform us why there are differences in the texts of Exo 20 and Exo 34, and that is by rendering the same word as both Rhema in one place and Logos in another, (Exo 34). The Rhema is the spoken Word, the Logos is the understanding of the spoken Word, and that is why the text of Exo 34 appears different from Exo 20.

These are clearly the first Ten:

Deuteronomy 4:13 OG LXX
13 και ανηγγειλεν υμιν την διαθηκην αυτου ην ενετειλατο υμιν ποιειν τα δεκα ρηματα και εγραψεν αυτα επι δυο πλακας λιθινας

Deuteronomy 4:12-13 LXX (Brenton Translation)
12 And the Lord spoke to you out of the midst of the fire a voice of words, which ye heard: and ye saw no likeness, only ye heard a voice.
13 And he announced to you his covenant, which he commanded you to keep, even the ten commandments; [τα δεκα ρηματα] and he wrote them on two tables of stone.

This concerns the Logos within the Rhema:

Exodus 34:28 OG LXX
28 και ην εκει μωυσης εναντιον κυριου τεσσαρακοντα ημερας και τεσσαρακοντα νυκτας αρτον ουκ εφαγεν και υδωρ ουκ επιεν και εγραψεν τα ρηματα ταυτα επι των πλακων της διαθηκης τους δεκα λογους

Exodus 34:28 LXX (Brenton Translation)
28 And Moses was there before the Lord forty days, and forty nights; he did not eat bread, and he did not drink water; and he wrote upon the tables these words of the covenant, the ten sayings [τους δεκα λογους].

In the Hebrew text both passages contain the same phrase, "aseret haDebarim", (or Devarim, as you also said), but they are not the same because of context: for clearly Exo 20 contains the spoken Word, which is Rhema, (and only later does it become written Word), while Exo 34 is clearly Logos, the understanding and reasoning behind the Rhema spoken Word. Once a person realizes this and begins to study it out the ten Words from Exodus 20 become rather apparent in the Exodus 34 passage.


Hi Daq,

This is intriguing. Icy that you are Messianic. Is this a Messianic teaching? I'd be interested to hear how you come to embrace these beliefs. To me they don't seem tenable, but since I've not heard someone attempt to defend them I thought I'd at least give you the opportunity to do so.

God bless!

But for the grace of God go I,cyspark
 
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daq

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Hi Daq,

This is intriguing. Icy that you are Messianic. Is this a Messianic teaching? I'd be interested to hear how you come to embrace these beliefs. To me they don't seem tenable, but since I've not heard someone attempt to defend them I thought I'd at least give you the opportunity to do so.

God bless!

But for the grace of God go I,cyspark

A more full explanation may be found in the following thread in this same board, (all seven uninterrupted posts).


I did not end up fully expounding the 2Cor 3 passage because no one here was interested.
But that was fine with me so I left it open and moved on to other things. :)
 
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HIM

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You keep inserting "(God)" into the verse where the context is Moses writing. in Ex 34:27 God tells Moses to write. "He" (ie, Moses) was "with Yahweh" (Ex 34:28) and "he" (ie, still Moses) writes (Ex 34:28). There is no reason to take your interpretation as the simple contextual, literary reading of this text supports the view I'm giving.
Hmmm, I hate the word but. But there is this, Take note that Moses' Testimony directly says God Wrote. The contrast Between the first person singular I in verse 3 and the third person singular He in verse 4 is clear.

Deut 10:3 And I made an ark of [bless and do not curse][bless and do not curse][bless and do not curse][bless and do not curse]tim wood, and hewed two tables of stone like unto the first, and went up into the mount, having the two tables in mine hand.
Deut 10:4 And He wrote on the tables, according to the first writing, the ten commandments, which the LORD spake unto you in the mount out of the midst of the fire in the day of the assembly: and the LORD gave them unto me.


The text in 34 is ambiguous. It can be taken either way. Deut 10 cannot.

However 34:27 literally says in the Hebrew and Greek, "write to thou these words" and "write to thyself these sayings" respectively.

Which implies Moses wrote his own copy.

Regardless Deut 10 is crystal clear
 
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Bob S

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In the previous chapter, John 4, the Master sits down by the well of Yakob and encounters the woman of Samaria, and it is about the sixth hour, which is the tzohorim midday hour for those familiar with the Torah and Prophets.

John 4:5-7 KJV
5 Then cometh he to a city of Samaria, which is called Sychar, near to the parcel of ground that Jacob gave to his son Joseph.
6 Now Jacob's well was there. Jesus therefore, being wearied with his journey, sat thus on the well: and it was about the sixth hour.
7 There cometh a woman of Samaria to draw water: Jesus saith unto her, Give me to drink.

This is the same time of day Peter goes up to thne rooftop to pray at midday, about the sixth hour, (Acts 10:9).

The John 4 passage yet again signifies a specific hour of the day, according to the Testimony-Word of the Master, the midday hour of prayer, and herein, just as in the next chapter, John 5, the Master signifies the exact beginning of that hour of prayer right in the midst of his conversation with the woman at the well. When he says that the hour now is, it is the bottom of the sixth hour, for the midday hour is two lights, (the meaning of tzohorim), because it contains a half hour of the morning portion of the day and a half hour of the evening portion of the day, (the two halves of a twelve hour day are six hours each, and the evening portion of the daylight commences when the women go forth to draw water, Gen 24:11, Jhn 4:6-7, thus we have morning light and evening light, two lights, (tzohorim)).

The following is not a "demand", no, but is for those who love the Father and His Word:

John 4:21-24 KJV
21 Jesus saith unto her, Woman, believe me, the hour cometh, when ye shall neither in this mountain, nor yet at Jerusalem, worship the Father.
22 Ye worship ye know not what: we know what we worship: for salvation is of the Jews.
23 But the hour cometh, and now is, when the true worshippers shall worship the Father in spirit and in truth: for the Father seeketh such to worship him.
24 God is a Spirit: and they that worship him must worship him in spirit and in truth.

One may easily tell, by the shadows on the ground, when the sun has passed directly overhead and begins its westward trek across the sky toward sunset. He therefore signifies the midday hour and its commencement, right here in the text, for those who love the Father and believe His Word through His Son and wish to be pleasing to the Father.

With love, there is no need for a demand: that is an obstruction along the path toward understanding.

Hi Daq, With interest I read your post with the thought that it might answer my question as to where in all of scripture Gentiles are ever demanded by God to keep a day Holy. I find that there is absolutely nothing in your post that would answer my question. At least, you tried. I will give you credit for that. Most Sabbath observers continue to ignore my question. If God had demanded Gentiles to observe the Sabbath I would be the first to try to observe it. I would disregard all that Paul wrote that freed the Jews from the ritual laws contained in the Torah.
 
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Yekcidmij

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Um, no. That's not an exegesis of Exodus 34:1-3. Neither indeed did you respond to any of my four questions.

Of course it is. That you don't like it has little bearing on it.

What icy you doing is attempting to obfuscate the main and plain meaning of these three verses by throwing out Hebrew terms which don't appear overtly relevant to the topic at hand.

No, that's you.
I'm unsure why it's important to you to have Moses be the one who is writing the Ten Commandments, but your motivation may be interfering with your ability to rightly handle the word of God.

I don't think it's wise to try to divine my motives, and your effort to discredit my by this smear is incorrect anyway. If you follow the discussion on this very thread, I only noted it because another poster brought it up as a point in their argument. It doesn't matter to me one way other the other if God wrote it down or if Moses did.

Part of properly exegeting a passage of the Bible is to compare Scripture with Scripture.

Yet you don't even compare it with scripture in the same passage whereas I did.
 
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Icyspark

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Of course it is. That you don't like it has little bearing on it.



No, that's you.


I don't think it's wise to try to divine my motives, and your effort to discredit my by this smear is incorrect anyway. If you follow the discussion on this very thread, I only noted it because another poster brought it up as a point in their argument. It doesn't matter to me one way other the other if God wrote it down or if Moses did.



Yet you don't even compare it with scripture in the same passage whereas I did.


Never mind. It's appears that you are here to troll and not to actually discuss what the Bible says.
 
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