John 5:18
For this reason therefore the Jews were seeking all the more to kill Him, because He not only was breaking the Sabbath, but also was calling God His own Father, making Himself equal with God.
I am aware that most commentators are of the opinion that Jesus did not break the Sabbath and that the Jews had falsely accused him, but if you look at it more closely, the Jews were actually right in their accusation that Jesus broke the Sabbath.
Reason:
The law says you shall not bear any burden on the Sabbath (Jeremiah 17:21-22). That this commandment is to be understood in exactly this way can be seen from the fact that God had a man stoned to death for carrying only wood on the Sabbath (Numbers 15:32-36). Jesus broke this commandment by commanding the healed man to carry his bed (John 5:10-11). The Jews were right in their accusation in this regard. And the clear proof that Jesus broke the Sabbath lies in the fact that John the author of the Gospel agrees with this in verse 18. If Jesus had not broken the Sabbath, he would not have expressed himself in this way but would have made it clear that the Jews were lying.
The reason why Jesus broke the ceremonial commandments like the Sabbath was not because he was a sinner for he is sinless but because he wanted to show that these commandments are to be understood spiritually. The Sabbath was never to be the seventh day of the week. The Sabbath was Jesus Christ, who is the true rest in which we should enter, as Paul said. Paul also said that God never wanted animal sacrifices, but that the true sacrifice is Jesus. The Old Testament is only a shadow, the New Testament is the fulfilment and the reality.
If one does not see and understand the sacred calendar day in Gen 1-2:3, (not to be confused with the civil calendar day in Numbers 7), and if one does not understand the true Torah calendar being taught in the Gospel accounts by the Master and later by his apostles in their writings: then neither will the same understand the passage in question here in your OP. Moreover the Gospel of John builds up to the events in John 5 by laying the ground work for what happens in the passage in question.
The point is that it is too much to try to expound and explain to someone who hasn't studied these things mentioned herein above and many more things unmentioned which are related. The apparent blatant contradiction is there on purpose: but the purpose is to force the reader to study the scripture and therefore know Elohim better and better, (and to be taught of Elohim by His Word, not of men). The purpose is not so that people can say, "Yay, Jesus broke the Sabbath", "the law is abolished", and go along their merry own way.
The answer begins here:
John 5:17 T/R-N/A-W/H
17 ο δε [ιησους] απεκρινατο αυτοις
ο πατηρ μου εως αρτι εργαζεται καγω εργαζομαι
εως αρτι ~
until right now, until this very moment, until just now, etc., etc.
They had the wrong timing for the Shabbat hour of the day, (sacred calendar day), because they set a hedge about the time so as to insure that no one broke the Shabbat. In other words they were half an hour early because of their addition hedges which they themselves added to the commandments, but the Shabbat hour of the day commenced just as the Master spoke to them and said the words quoted above in John 5:17, and the Master himself makes it very plain for anyone who understands the Torah and the calendar taught therein: the Shabbat commenced exactly when he said it did in the passage, that is, "right now", (as he spoke).
The first crumb in a trail of clues back-tracking through this Gospel account:
John 4:21-23 KJV
21 Jesus saith unto her, Woman, believe me,
the hour cometh, when ye shall neither in this mountain, nor yet at Jerusalem, worship the Father.
22 Ye worship ye know not what: we know what we worship: for salvation is of the Jews.
23
But the hour cometh,
and now is, when the true worshippers shall worship the Father in spirit and in truth: for the Father seeketh such to worship him.
The bold red portion in the above statement marks the changeover to a particular hour of the day, and he specifically marks the hour, saying, "But the hour comes,
and now is", right in the middle of their conversation. The hour before this appointed time is mentioned at the opening of the passage, that is, it was about the sixth hour when he sat down at the well, (John 4:6), and therefore the hour changes over to the seventh hour in John 4:23, right in the midst of their conversation.
And what follows in the next event at the end of this chapter? The nobleman's son is healed, and a particular hour of the day is mentioned, and of course it was the seventh hour of the day when his son was healed.