Originally posted by MissytheButterfly
In having stated this as you have..Could you please explain what this passage of the bible means:
Hbr 1:7 And of the angels he saith, Who maketh his angels spirits, and his ministers a flame of fire.
Hbr 1:8 But unto the Son [he saith], Thy throne, O God, [is] for ever and ever: a sceptre of righteousness [is] the sceptre of thy kingdom.
Hbr 1:9 Thou hast loved righteousness, and hated iniquity; therefore God, [even] thy God, hath anointed thee with the oil of gladness above thy fellows.
Hbr 1:10 And, Thou, Lord, in the beginning hast laid the foundation of the earth; and the heavens are the works of thine hands:
Why does God (the Father) refer to Jesus as God ? And why does he refer to him as Lord ? And why does God (the Father) state that Jesus is the maker of heaven and earth? (and of course we know in the book of Genesis, we see that God is labeled as the maker, but here it seems God is saying Jesus is..)
Hebrew 1:8 is NOT the Hebrew writer's first-hand account. He lifted this passage from Psalm 45:6 which is a part of a POEM written for a KING, apparently referring to Jesus, who is fairer than the children of MEN (Psalm 45:1-2).
The CORRECT translation of Psalm 45:6 which should be the CORRECT Heb. 1:8 is: "The KINGDOM which God has given you, will last for ever and ever. You rule your people with justice" (i]Today's English Version[/i]).
This translation CONFORMS with 2 Samuel 7:13-14 which says: "He shall build a house for my name, and I will establish the throne of his kingdom for ever. I will be his father, and he will be my son."
Luke 1:31-33 confirms the fulfillment of Samuel's prophecy, thus: "And, behold, thous halt conceive in thy womb, and bring forth a son, and shlt call his name JESUS. He shall be great, and shall be called the son of the highest; and the Lord God shall give unto him the throne of David: And he shall reign over the house of David for ever; and his kingdom there shall be no end."
So you see, you are reading from a version of Heb. 1:8 which was lifted from a MISTRANSLATED version of Psalm 45:6. If you go further to Psalm 45:7 (Heb. 1:9) you will notice that God ANOINTED the King with the oil of gladness ABOVE his "fellow-kings", "fellows" or "companions." If Heb. 1:8 were accurate and the King to whom the poem is written is God, then we would have not only TWO Gods but COUNTLERSS Gods because this God (king) has "companiomns" or "fellows."
Heb. 1:10-12 is also NOT the Hebrew writer's own.It is lifted from Psam 102:25-27 which is the Psamist's doxology to God - NOT to Jesus.
And how do explain I John 5:7 "For these are 3 that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost:and these 3 are one."
Missy
This verse is considered spurious because it did not appear in manuscripts earlier than the 16th century. The NIV has it: "For there are three that testify." And the TEV has it: "There are three witnesses."
Ed