Where in the world did you get that translation? It contradicts scripture.
(CLV) Hb 8:13
In saying "new," He has made the former old. Now that which is growing old and decrepit is near its disappearance.
(CLV) Hb 8:8
For, blaming them, He is saying, "Lo! the days are coming," the Lord is saying, "And I shall be concluding with the house of Israel and with the house of Judah a new (Renewed Kainos) covenant,
The Greek word being used here is "Kainos" which means renewed, or refreshed, not "Neos" which means brand new.
Would you please come over here and pick me up off the floor!
Where in the world did you get that translation?
You got it just backwards. . .in this
unbelievable gloss.
Actually,
kainos is
new,
differing in character (used of the New Covenant),
while
neos is a
reproduction of the
old in quality and character (
not used of the New Covenant). And speaking of
unbelievable:
In what universe is a "renewed" covenant stated some 30 years
after its "renewal" to be
old,
decrepit, near its
disappearance" (expired)?
In what universe is a
bilateral covenant "renewed" by a
unilateral covenant?
In what universe is a covenant cut in the blood of an
animal "renewed" in a covenant cut in the blood of the
Son of God?
In what universe does "renewal" of the
same covenant require a
different Mediator?
In what universe is a covenant conditioned on
works of law keeping "renewed" in a covenant conditioned on
faith apart from works of lawkeeping?
To maintain that the New Covenant in the blood of Jesus Christ is the
renewal of the Sinaitic Covenant is absurd on its face.
If the New Covenant is related to any covenant, it would be the fulfillment of the Abrahamic Covenant of grace--salvation by faith.
The author of Hebrews is quoting Jeremiah 31:31.
(CLV) Jer 31:31
Behold, the days are coming, averring is Yahweh, when I will contract a new (Chadash) covenant with the house of Israel and »the house of Judah.
According to The TWOT, the Hebrew word chadash means “to repair, rebuild or renew.”
The translators of the Septuagint used the Greek word kainos for the Hebrew chadash, for Jerermiah 31:31.
According to those who translated the Hebrew into Greek almost 300 years before the birth of Christ,
chadash means "
new thing,"
as in new king, new house, new ropes, etc. (
Isaiah 43:19;
Jeremiah 31:22, 31;
Exodus 1:8;
Deuteronomy 20:5;
Judges 16:11; etc.)
YHWH did not nullify his covenant with Moses, David, and the prophets. Those who are obedient to the Father's will will se them in due time.
He renewed his covenant with Israel, who broke his covenant. This time he wrote his laws where they are not so easy to ignore.
The Sinaitic covenant, which was not with David or the prophets specifically, was temporarily
added to the Abrahamic covenant
until
the Messiah had come (
Galatians 3:19,
Romans 5:20) when it would then
expire (
Hebrews 8:13), "growing
old and decrepit,
near its disappearance."
The Aaronic Priesthood is different than the Levitical Priesthood.
Biblical basis for two covenant priesthoods at the same time? . . .the New Covenant priesthood of Melchizedek is forever.
(CLV) Jer 33:18
As for the Levitical priests there shall not be cut off a man from before Me who offers up the ascent offering and fumes the approach present and offers sacrifices for all the days.
(CLV) Jer 33:20
Thus says Yahweh: If you could annul My covenant with the day and My covenant with the night so that daytime and night fail to come about in their proper time,
(CLV) Jer 33:21
then also My covenant could be annulled with David My servant, so that he should not come to have a son reigning on his throne, and that with the Levites, the priests, My ministers.
YHWH's Torah, instruction, direction, is a reflection of his nature. YHWH doesn't change, therefore neither does his reflection.
(CLV) Hb 7:11
If, indeed, then, perfection were through the Levitical priesthood (for the people have been placed under law with it), what need is there still for a different priest to arise according to the order of Melchizedek, and not said to be according to the order of Aaron?
(CLV) Hb 7:12
For, the priesthood being transferred, of necessity there is coming to be a transference of law also,
The operative word here is "transferred," not "changed."
The operative word is
metatithemi (change, remove, translate) of the priesthood, and
metathesis of the law, which law was
set aside
(
Hebrews 7:18-19), not "transferred,"
and replaced with the grace of Christ, just as the priesthhod of Aaron was
set aside, not transferred,
and replaced with the High Priest, Jesus Christ.
(CLV) Eph 2:15
(the enmity in His flesh), nullifying the law of precepts in decrees (δογμασιν DOGMA), that He should be creating the two, in Himself, into one new humanity, making peace;
What was nullified was the man made law of the imposters posing as the temple "Priests."
For example, see the preceding verse:
(CLV) Eph 2:14
For He is our Peace, Who makes both one, and razes the central wall of the barrier
Can you show me where, in the Torah, YHWH ordered such a barrier?
Did the text state that God ordered the barrier? . . .straw man?
The barrier created
itself with the defilement laws which kept the Jews from associating with the defiled Gentiles.
Removing the Levitical laws and regulations of defilement, etc. removed the barrier that kept the Jews from associating with the Gentiles.
It is the Levitical laws and regulations that were abolished (Ephesians 2:15), not "man made laws of imposters," because it was
the Levitical laws and regulations that created the bariier.
Paul is not contradicting Yahshua.
He makes it clear here:
(CLV) Ro 3:31
Are we, then, nullifying law through faith? May it not be coming to that! Nay, we are sustaining law.
Precisely, in denying the law's role in savlation/justification by faith
apart from the law, Paul is not
nullifying the law, rather he is
establishing it on its right basis,
apart from salvation/justification and
in sanctification/holiness by obedience in the Holy Spirit.
