Jacob’s 70 Weeks

[jgr]

I'm not near as experienced with Hebrew as you are, and I know that a smart person can explain ANYTHING in simple terms to a less capable person. So if you would be so kind, please explain why one word with one set of jots and tittles is exactly the same as a SECOND word with a different set of jots and tittles.

As uneducated as I am, it would seem to me that TWO different words probably don't mean exactly the same thing. Otherwise there would only be ONE word for ONE definition. But as already explained, I'm not near as smart as other posters on this Forum.

Daniel 9:24 -- שָׁבֻעִ֨ים
Daniel 10:3 -- שָׁבֻעִ֖ים​

... And if I might add, -- where you asserted that all "20x" citations are "masculine", why does Strong's include "feminine" in the definition of the H7620 if there are NO feminine occurrences?

שָׁבוּעַ shâbûwaʻ, shaw-boo'-ah; or שָׁבֻעַ shâbuaʻ; also (feminine) שְׁבֻעָה shᵉbuʻâh​

1. Gen 29:27
2. Gen 29:28
3. Exo 34:22
4. Lev 12:5
5. Num 28:26
6. Deu 16:9 x 1
7. Deu 16:9 x 2
8. Deu 16:10
9. Deu 16:16
10. 2Ch 8:13
11. Jer 5:24
12. Eze 45:21
13. Dan 9:24
14. Dan 9:25 x 1
15. Dan 9:25 x 2
16. Dan 9:26
17. Dan 9:27 x 1
18. Dan 9:27 x 2
19. Dan 10:2
20. Dan 10:3

To quote Elmer Fudd: "Hey...there's something awfully screwy going on around here."

Thanks,
DaDad

If we could see YKKW's analysis, perhaps we could understand their rationale.

 

[jgr]

I'm not near as experienced with Hebrew as you are, and I know that a smart person can explain ANYTHING in simple terms to a less capable person. So if you would be so kind, please explain why one word with one set of jots and tittles is exactly the same as a SECOND word with a different set of jots and tittles.

As uneducated as I am, it would seem to me that TWO different words probably don't mean exactly the same thing. Otherwise there would only be ONE word for ONE definition. But as already explained, I'm not near as smart as other posters on this Forum.

Daniel 9:24 -- שָׁבֻעִ֨ים
Daniel 10:3 -- שָׁבֻעִ֖ים​

... And if I might add, -- where you asserted that all "20x" citations are "masculine", why does Strong's include "feminine" in the definition of the H7620 if there are NO feminine occurrences?

שָׁבוּעַ shâbûwaʻ, shaw-boo'-ah; or שָׁבֻעַ shâbuaʻ; also (feminine) שְׁבֻעָה shᵉbuʻâh​

1. Gen 29:27
2. Gen 29:28
3. Exo 34:22
4. Lev 12:5
5. Num 28:26
6. Deu 16:9 x 1
7. Deu 16:9 x 2
8. Deu 16:10
9. Deu 16:16
10. 2Ch 8:13
11. Jer 5:24
12. Eze 45:21
13. Dan 9:24
14. Dan 9:25 x 1
15. Dan 9:25 x 2
16. Dan 9:26
17. Dan 9:27 x 1
18. Dan 9:27 x 2
19. Dan 10:2
20. Dan 10:3

To quote Elmer Fudd: "Hey...there's something awfully screwy going on around here."

Thanks,
DaDad

If you plug each of those words, שָׁבֻעִ֨ים and שָׁבֻעִ֖ים, into a Hebrew-English translator, you'll see that they both have the same meaning, i.e. seventy. So it's two words with slightly different spellings and perhaps also pronunciations, but which mean the same thing. A crude English analogy might be the words "yea" and "yeah", spelled and pronounced slightly differently, but both meaning "yes".

According to Strong's, the differences do not change the gender, which is identified as masculine in both cases.

We really need to see YKKW's analysis and rationale.

 

[DaDad]

If you plug each of those words, שָׁבֻעִ֨ים and שָׁבֻעִ֖ים, into a Hebrew-English translator, ...

Ok, STOP TRANSLATING. Jesus's "love" question may be "translated" the same as Peter's "love" answer but one is "AGAPE", and the other is "PHILO". The ORIGINAL TEXT ain't the SAME.

Either the jots and tittles are the SAME thus the Word is the SAME, or the Jots and tittles are DIFFERENT, and thus the Word is DIFFERENT.

Matt. 5:18 For verily I say unto you, Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be fulfilled.​

Your argument that different words have the exact same definition is nonsense. Now grab a hat, coat, and pair of gloves ...


DaDad

 

[jgr]

Ok, STOP TRANSLATING. Jesus's "love" question may be "translated" the same as Peter's "love" answer but one is "AGAPE", and the other is "PHILO". The ORIGINAL TEXT ain't the SAME.

Either the jots and tittles are the SAME thus the Word is the SAME, or the Jots and tittles are DIFFERENT, and thus the Word is DIFFERENT.

Matt. 5:18 For verily I say unto you, Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be fulfilled.​

Your argument that different words have the exact same definition is nonsense. Now grab a hat, coat, and pair of gloves ...


DaDad

Just when I thought you were exhibiting some insight...

Until you can produce YKKW's analysis, your arguments are meritless.

 

[DaDad]

... meritless.

"Meritless", -- mine? Yep, all words mean the same. Good call.
DaDad

 

[jgr]

"Meritless", -- mine? Yep, all words mean the same. Good call.
DaDad

Why don't you find someone familiar with Hebrew to answer your questions?

 

[DaDad]

Why don't you find someone familiar with Hebrew to answer your questions?

You mean the ORIGINAL HEBREW TEXT? Yeah, I already checked both on-line and against my J.P. Stevens interlinear. And it turns out that the jots and tittles are DIFFERENT between the various verses. Thus they MUST BE DIFFERENT WORDS.

But you already knew that. You just didn't like the answer.
DaDad

 

[jgr]

You mean the ORIGINAL HEBREW TEXT? Yeah, I already checked both on-line and against my J.P. Stevens interlinear. And it turns out that the jots and tittles are DIFFERENT between the various verses. Thus they MUST BE DIFFERENT WORDS.

But you already knew that. You just didn't like the answer.
DaDad

Then find someone who can tell us what those different words are.

I've never believed they are different words.

 

[DaDad]

Then find someone who can tell us what those different words are.
I've never believed they are different words.

"Belief" and "fact" are two different things. The words are different, as evidenced by the jots and tittles, and I'VE ALREADY FOUND SOMEONE WHO CAN TELL US WHAT THE DIFFERENT WORDS ARE. You just don't want to don't want to believe others, and you don't want to do your own investigation!.

So make a decision, but don't do like my favorite aunt used to say: "My mind's made up, don't confuse me with the facts." -- She was teasing, but there's a LOT of people who are SERIOUS.

Thanks,
DaDad

 

[jgr]

"Belief" and "fact" are two different things.

They're the same when believing in fact.

I'VE ALREADY FOUND SOMEONE WHO CAN TELL US WHAT THE DIFFERENT WORDS ARE.

What does "SOMEONE" say?

 

[DaDad]

They're the same when believing in fact.

Is marijuana legal where you live?!?
Thanks,
DaDad

 

[jgr]

Is marijuana legal where you live?!?
Thanks,
DaDad

You seem to have overlooked my question.

What does "SOMEONE" say?

 

[DaDad]

You seem to have overlooked my question.

No, it was intentional.
Thanks,
DaDad

 

[jgr]

No, it was intentional.
Thanks,
DaDad

Translation: "SOMEONE" didn't confirm your presumptions.

See, translations can be useful.

 

[DaDad]

... translations can be useful.

Who said they weren't "useful": I merely said they weren't ACCURATE.

If you use the ORIGINAL TEXT it will be ACCURATE. If you use a translation, you don't know what you'll get, from language limitations (ie., Jesus' "love" versus Peter's "love"), to agenda driven sentence structures (i.e., the numbers seven and sixty-two summed as though the AUTHOR intended sixty-nine).

Matt. 5:18 For verily I say unto you, till heaven and earth pass away, not one jot or one tittle shall in any wise pass from the law till all be fulfilled.​

GOD'S Word, or a translation. -- Only ONE has jots and tittles.

Thanks,
DaDad

 

[jgr]

I'm not near as experienced with Hebrew as you are, and I know that a smart person can explain ANYTHING in simple terms to a less capable person. So if you would be so kind, please explain why one word with one set of jots and tittles is exactly the same as a SECOND word with a different set of jots and tittles.

As uneducated as I am, it would seem to me that TWO different words probably don't mean exactly the same thing. Otherwise there would only be ONE word for ONE definition. But as already explained, I'm not near as smart as other posters on this Forum.

Daniel 9:24 -- שָׁבֻעִ֨ים
Daniel 10:3 -- שָׁבֻעִ֖ים​

... And if I might add, -- where you asserted that all "20x" citations are "masculine", why does Strong's include "feminine" in the definition of the H7620 if there are NO feminine occurrences?

שָׁבוּעַ shâbûwaʻ, shaw-boo'-ah; or שָׁבֻעַ shâbuaʻ; also (feminine) שְׁבֻעָה shᵉbuʻâh​

1. Gen 29:27
2. Gen 29:28
3. Exo 34:22
4. Lev 12:5
5. Num 28:26
6. Deu 16:9 x 1
7. Deu 16:9 x 2
8. Deu 16:10
9. Deu 16:16
10. 2Ch 8:13
11. Jer 5:24
12. Eze 45:21
13. Dan 9:24
14. Dan 9:25 x 1
15. Dan 9:25 x 2
16. Dan 9:26
17. Dan 9:27 x 1
18. Dan 9:27 x 2
19. Dan 10:2
20. Dan 10:3

To quote Elmer Fudd: "Hey...there's something awfully screwy going on around here."

Thanks,
DaDad

If you examine the lettering closely, you'll see that the jot in עִ֨ has not passed, but only been repositioned to the bottom of the letter i.e. עִ֖ .

Jesus said that not one jot (or tittle) would pass.

That jot has not passed. Its repositioning within the same letter has not materially changed the word.

 

[DaDad]

Its repositioning within the same letter has not materially changed the word.

Matt. 5:18 For verily I say unto you, till heaven and earth pass away, not one jot or one tittle shall in any wise pass from the law till all be fulfilled.​

They might not matter to you, but they matter to GOD.

DaDad

 

[jgr]

Matt. 5:18 For verily I say unto you, till heaven and earth pass away, not one jot or one tittle shall in any wise pass from the law till all be fulfilled.​

They might not matter to you, but they matter to GOD.

DaDad

God too knows that the jot has not passed.

 

[DaDad]

God too knows that the jot has not passed.

If EACH position is not separately acknowledged,, it's been PASSED-over by YOU.

Please obey EVERY jot and tittle,
DaDad