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It is my contention that John 3:16 has been forever mistranslated....

Feb 3, 2011
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So the whole of creation is not going to be redeemed, though it's "awaiting its redemption" according to Paul?

I would respond that the whole of creation is indeed going to be redeemed -- just not every individual part of creation.
No actually scripture does not say the whole of creation is going to be redeemed. It says 'the whole creation groaneth and travaileth in pain together until now.'

The whole creation is under the curse of sin. This is why the whole creation groans and travails. But no, the whole creation will not be redeemed. The curse of sin will be destroyed yes, and no sin will be in the new heaven and the new earth.

Only those (mankind) who are redeemed by the blood of Jesus Christ, are redeemed. We come to Jesus Christ in repentance, and believe in Him, and we abide in Him. This is soteriology. There is no other method of salvation. The confusion and debate is about the words 'world', 'all', 'any', 'whosoever'. Jesus Christ died for sin, to make an atonement for sin, His blood is the propitiation for sin. Only those who repent, believe in Jesus Christ, abide in Jesus Christ, will be saved. Again, this is soteriology.

As for world, Jesus commanded us to take the gospel to "all the world", and to "every creature". This is what we are commanded. This should define 'world' for us, in our command to do that. To "Go ye into all the world, and preach the gospel to every creature. He that believeth and is baptized shall be saved; but he that believeth not shall be damned."

That is what He said do. Jesus Christ Himself will be the one all will give account to. He will judge those in Him, and those not. The particular theologies will not amount to much then, we spend so much time and energy debating. Calvinism versus Arminianism, or any other 'ism', or 'ist' for that matter. What will matter is our repentance toward God, and our belief in, and fathfulness to Jesus Christ. Our service to Jesus Christ, our obedience to Jesus Christ. These are the 'predestined' ones. And these are the 'chosen', the 'justified', the 'called'. All of those who are IN JESUS CHRIST. God Bless.
 
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Deaver

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What do I mean by this? Ever since the KJV, I believe that John 3:16 has been mistranslated and isn't correct... none of the current Bible have it right either because of everyone comes from an Arminian viewpoint.... the verse, and I kid you not, is Calvinistic to the core, if it is translated correctly...

Joh 3:16 οὕτω γὰρ ἡγάπησεν ὁ Θεὸς τὸν κόσμον, ὥστε τὸν υἱὸν αὐτοῦ τὸν μονογενῆ ἔδωκεν, ἵνα πᾶς ὁ πιστεύων εἰς αὐτὸν μὴ ἀπόληται, ἀλλ᾿ ἔχῃ ζωὴν αἰώνιον.

For in this way God loved the world, that he gave his only son, in order that all the believing ones in him not destroyed, but shall have life of the ages.

The whole contention really centers on the "whosoever believeth" as in everyone had a "free-choice" in the matter of choosing or rejecting Christ... but if you view the verse by comparing scripture with scripture, and knowing that Christ's redemption actually saved people, not merely made salvation possible then it makes sense.... the verse really is just saying all those believing in Christ are saved... it's not to be understood in the sense that "whosoever" can come, but that all those already believing are saved (because obviously they were chosen...)

Can I get a witness from another Calvinist that knows Greek better than I? I've had four semesters of Greek, but I'm rusty.

Why do we try to read so much into this verse. IMHO, all it says is that those who believe will not perish. It doesn’t speak to election or free will.
 
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heymikey80

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No actually scripture does not say the whole of creation is going to be redeemed. It says 'the whole creation groaneth and travaileth in pain together until now.'
that the creation itself will be set free from its bondage to corruption and obtain the freedom of the glory of the children of God. Rom 8:21
 
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that the creation itself will be set free from its bondage to corruption and obtain the freedom of the glory of the children of God. Rom 8:21

Well I know you are not a universalist. Good verse for them to misinterpret too. All I can figure is that it somehow makes a point about taking the gospel to 'all the world', but it really doesn't. All will not be redeemed. Nothing there about redeemed. All are redeemed only through believing in Christ and abiding in Christ. But God desires all to be saved, and come to repentance.

The bondage to corruption, through sin, will not finally rule, rather will be destroyed. The elements will melt with fervent heat. All who rebel and reject Christ will be eternally condemned. This is what is coming to the sinful fallen world we have now.

There is an escape. This escape is through Jesus Christ. One who comes to God with repentance, and believes in Jesus Christ, His Son, and abides in Jesus Christ will be saved. This is the only soteriology that will save anyone. I hope this does not frustrate anyone. Only in Jesus Christ is salvation. This is the only foundation that can be laid. This is soteriology.
Not calvinism, arminianism, and any other 'ism'
 
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heymikey80

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It seems rather clear that the creation will obtain the freedom of the glory of the children of God. After all, it's what the verse says. Attempting to reinterpret this to say it's being destroyed inconsistent with or opposed to this glorification would be a problem for this verse.

The solution of course is that all of creation will be remade, in a New Heavens and a New Earth. The redeemed creation will exist eternally with the sons of God as its citizens.
 
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Jpark

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What do I mean by this? Ever since the KJV, I believe that John 3:16 has been mistranslated and isn't correct... none of the current Bible have it right either because of everyone comes from an Arminian viewpoint.... the verse, and I kid you not, is Calvinistic to the core, if it is translated correctly...

Joh 3:16 οὕτω γὰρ ἡγάπησεν ὁ Θεὸς τὸν κόσμον, ὥστε τὸν υἱὸν αὐτοῦ τὸν μονογενῆ ἔδωκεν, ἵνα πᾶς ὁ πιστεύων εἰς αὐτὸν μὴ ἀπόληται, ἀλλ᾿ ἔχῃ ζωὴν αἰώνιον.

For in this way God loved the world, that he gave his only son, in order that all the believing ones in him not destroyed, but shall have life of the ages.

The whole contention really centers on the "whosoever believeth" as in everyone had a "free-choice" in the matter of choosing or rejecting Christ... but if you view the verse by comparing scripture with scripture, and knowing that Christ's redemption actually saved people, not merely made salvation possible then it makes sense.... the verse really is just saying all those believing in Christ are saved... it's not to be understood in the sense that "whosoever" can come, but that all those already believing are saved (because obviously they were chosen...)

Can I get a witness from another Calvinist that knows Greek better than I? I've had four semesters of Greek, but I'm rusty.
Incredible!

The teaching, that God loves and wants everyone to be saved, denies Scripture.

Just look at the context of 2 Thess. 2:11-12.

But we should always give thanks to God for you, brethren beloved by the Lord, because God has chosen you from the beginning for salvation through sanctification by the Spirit and faith in the truth.

A major contrast we have between those who God does not want to be saved and those who God does want to be saved.
 
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This thread has had a small clean up. If your post is missing, it is because it was a violation or responding to one that was.

Keep it civil.
 
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packermann

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I agree that "whosoever" is not the intent in the Greek. But I find fault with you "comparing scripture with scripture". Both Calvinists and Arminians use that rule. The Calvinists have their favorite verses and see their difficult verses that seem to go against Cavinism in light of their favorite verses. The Arminians have their favorite verses and see their difficult verses that seem to go against Arminianism in light of their favorite verses.

The Catholic Church sees things as mysteries - as parodoxes of truth. There is one God and yet there are three. Christ is fully God and yet fully man. We are saved totally by the grace of God, but yet we must work out our salvation with fear and trembling. There is only one mediator between God and man, and yet we can ask each other, and those in heaven as well, to pray for us.

A few centuries back, there was a battle over predestination. The Thomists said that God does predestine us. The Molinsts said that man has a free will. This battle was similar to the Cavinist vs the Arminians. But the difference is that when there is a controversy within Protestantism, it never gets resolves. We just have more splits into denominations – violating Jesus’ prayer to the Father that we be all one as He and the Father are one.
But in the Catholic Church there is a magisterium to decide cases such as this. This is what the decision was, as guided by the Holy Spirit.
1. God predestines people to salvation
2. God wills that all be saved
3. Man has a free will and can resist God’s will

This may not satisfy the Calvinist or the Arminian. The Catholic Church agrees with what the Calvinist or the Arminian affirms to be true, but condemns as heresy what each denies. By the Calvinist denying that man can resist God’s will and that His will is that all be saved, he makes God into the author of evil and man a robot. By the Arminian denying predestination, he falls into the heresy of Pelagianism or at least Semi-Pelagianism.
Truth is a paradox. Scientists has discovered that light is a ray and particles. The Protestant mentality is that if A is true then B must false. So the Protestant accepts certain verses as their pet verses, and then uses those verses as a grid to see the rest of the Bible. And if they cannot fit into their system they either reject or ignore them.
For instance, in the Catholic Bible, there is the strongest verse to support free will.

11 Don't blame the Lord for your sin; the Lord does not cause what he hates.[a]12 Don't claim that he has misled you; he doesn't need the help of sinners to accomplish his purposes.13 The Lord hates evil in all its forms, and those who fear the Lord find nothing attractive in evil.14 When, in the beginning, the Lord created human beings, he left them free to do as they wished.15 If you want to, you can keep the Lord's commands. You can decide whether you will be loyal to him or not.16 He has placed fire and water before you; reach out and take whichever you want.17 You have a choice between life and death; you will get whichever you choose.18 The Lord's wisdom and power are great and he sees everything.19 He is aware of everything a person does, and he takes care of those who fear him.20 He has never commanded anyone to be wicked or given anyone permission to sin.
Sirach 15:11-20

The leaders of the Protestant Reformation, being so heavy into predestination to the point of rejecting free will, had a solution for dealing with this verse – they just took this book out of the Bible along with 6 other books. They rationalized this by saying that this was in the Old Testament and was rejected by the Jews. What they forgot to mention was that the Jews only rejected these seven books after Christ, not beforehand. For the first 1500 years, Christians had always accepted these seven books as part of the Word of God. Why should we accept the OT canon that was set forth by the Jews after they had already rejected Christ over afgainst what the Christian accepted as scripture for the first 1500 years? Also, the New Testament quoted from the Greek Septuagint when they quoted from the Old Testament, and the Greek Septuagint included these seven books.

Do not misunderstand me. As a Catholic, I accept predestination. But I also accept that God wills all to be saved and that man has a free will. I do not feel the need to twist one view to conform to the other. They are all paradoxically true. As St. Augustine once said, we pray as if it all depends on God; and we work as if it all depends on us.
 
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Epiphoskei

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By the Calvinist denying that man can resist God’s will and that His will is that all be saved, he makes God into the author of evil and man a robot.
Really? The RCC magesterium was using the Robot Trope centuries before the idea of a robot was invented?


For instance, in the Catholic Bible, there is the strongest verse to support free will.

11 Don't blame the Lord for your sin; the Lord does not cause what he hates.[a]12 Don't claim that he has misled you; he doesn't need the help of sinners to accomplish his purposes.13 The Lord hates evil in all its forms, and those who fear the Lord find nothing attractive in evil.14 When, in the beginning, the Lord created human beings, he left them free to do as they wished.15 If you want to, you can keep the Lord's commands. You can decide whether you will be loyal to him or not.16 He has placed fire and water before you; reach out and take whichever you want.17 You have a choice between life and death; you will get whichever you choose.18 The Lord's wisdom and power are great and he sees everything.19 He is aware of everything a person does, and he takes care of those who fear him.20 He has never commanded anyone to be wicked or given anyone permission to sin.
Sirach 15:11-20
A point I have tried making many, many times to no avail is that the dispute is not over whether we have free will, but over what free will means. There are no dissertations in scripture or apocrypha on that subject.

For the first 1500 years, Christians had always accepted these seven books as part of the Word of God.
I'm sorry, but the evidence doesn't bear that out. Just because Rome says "Christians had always believed...." doesn't mean Christians had always believed it. Generally you'll find numerous persons on both sides of every issue down throughout history.
 
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packermann

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Really? The RCC magesterium was using the Robot Trope centuries before the idea of a robot was invented?
Not sure what you are meaning by this. The Catholic Church has always affirmed free will. I suspect that you are appealing to prejudice rather than appealing to reason.


A point I have tried making many, many times to no avail is that the dispute is not over whether we have free will, but over what free will means. There are no dissertations in scripture or apocrypha on that subject.
Actually I agree. We all approach scripture with our own definitions of terms, and our definitions of terms is molded by what tradition we are brought up on. This is sola scriptura does not work. Two people from two different traditions see the Bible two different ways. The issue is which tradition is true. We cannot use the Bible to determine which tradition is true, since our choice in tradition would influence how we view the Bible.
The only tradition that goes all the way back to Jesus and his apostles is the Catholic tradition. This is strong evidence the Catholic tradition is apostolic in origin.


I'm sorry, but the evidence doesn't bear that out. Just because Rome says "Christians had always believed...." doesn't mean Christians had always believed it.
Please present the evidence of the Christians throughout the centuries who had rejected the deutero-canonicals before the Reformation.
Generally you'll find numerous persons on both sides of every issue down throughout history.
Sure, you have heresies throughout the centuries – Gnosticism, Arianism, Pelagianism, Monophysitism, Montanism, Albegensianism, etc. These were all condemned by the Catholic Church. Are you seriously saying that these heresies are equally valid positions? Here is a brief summary of these positions:
Gnosticism – The material world is evil. Man is saved by receiving an inner knowledge.
Arianism – Jesus Christ had a beginning, he was created by God.
Pelagianism – Man does not need the grace of God to be saved.
Monophysitism – Christ was not human.
Montanism – If you ever mortally sinned you can never be forgiven by God
Albegensianism – Suicide is a good thing. It is a sign if true holiness.
Which one of these positions do you accept?
If you reject these as heresies, I would agree with you. But how can the Catholic Church have rightfully condemned these heresies if it is living in darkness?
 
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Epiphoskei

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Not sure what you are meaning by this. The Catholic Church has always affirmed free will. I suspect that you are appealing to prejudice rather than appealing to reason.
I mean the notion that we make men robots is an appeal to prejudice rather than reason, and a fairly recent one that you can't argue you got from tradition or magesterium, given the idea of a robot was created around the 1930s I believe.

Actually I agree. We all approach scripture with our own definitions of terms, and our definitions of terms is molded by what tradition we are brought up on. This is sola scriptura does not work. Two people from two different traditions see the Bible two different ways. The issue is which tradition is true. We cannot use the Bible to determine which tradition is true, since our choice in tradition would influence how we view the Bible.
The only tradition that goes all the way back to Jesus and his apostles is the Catholic tradition. This is strong evidence the Catholic tradition is apostolic in origin.
That... has nothing to do with what I said. And that argument, if valid, refutes the concept of perspicuous communication altogether, not just the perspicuity of scripture. After all, two people from two different traditions hear what Rome says two different ways. We cannot use the RCC to determine which tradition is true, because our choice of tradition would influence how we hear the RCC.

Also, only Romans are lead to believe that Rome has the tradition going all the way back to Jesus and his apostles.



Please present the evidence of the Christians throughout the centuries who had rejected the deutero-canonicals before the Reformation.
Please present evidence that there were not Christians through the centuries who rejected the deuterocanon. Generally I don't call on people to prove a negative, but you are the one making the "we have always believed this" claim, and since claims of preserving ancient traditions always turn out to be false in secular contexts, the burden does lie on you to demonstrate your extraordinary claim.

Sure, you have heresies throughout the centuries – Gnosticism, Arianism, Pelagianism, Monophysitism, Montanism, Albegensianism, etc. These were all condemned by the Catholic Church. Are you seriously saying that these heresies are equally valid positions? Here is a brief summary of these positions:
Gnosticism – The material world is evil. Man is saved by receiving an inner knowledge.
Arianism – Jesus Christ had a beginning, he was created by God.
Pelagianism – Man does not need the grace of God to be saved.
Monophysitism – Christ was not human.
Montanism – If you ever mortally sinned you can never be forgiven by God
Albegensianism – Suicide is a good thing. It is a sign if true holiness.
Which one of these positions do you accept?
If you reject these as heresies, I would agree with you. But how can the Catholic Church have rightfully condemned these heresies if it is living in darkness?
That is not an extensive list of things Rome has condemned, that's a list of things Rome condemned which protestants agree with. If those were the only things Rome ever had condemned, you may have a point.

But you also condemned things like the belief that God doesn't want us to kill heretics, and as such Rome's claim to doctrinal authority is nonsense.
 
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packermann

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I mean the notion that we make men robots is an appeal to prejudice rather than reason, and a fairly recent one that you can't argue you got from tradition or magesterium, given the idea of a robot was created around the 1930s I believe.

OK, I grant that the “robot” was not taught of in the Middle Ages. But they did know about predeterminism, which dates back before Christianity. Astrology taught that man had no free will, but was in the stars.

But a denial of free will is a denial of reason. After all, what is the point for either one of us to even discuss our ideas if each one of us is predetermined to believe what God wills us to believe? As Chesterton once said, if there is no free will, there is no point in even asking someone at the table to pass the salt.

That... has nothing to do with what I said. And that argument, if valid, refutes the concept of perspicuous communication altogether, not just the perspicuity of scripture.

Not really, because our magisterium is a living magisterium. A living magisterium can provide feedback if he notices that he is being misinterpreted, a book cannot.

Also, a living magisterium is living today in our culture. Since the living magisterium is in our culture, he can speak to us in our culture so that we can understand. The Bible was written 2,000. It was written in classical Hebrew and koine Greek – both are dead languages.

If the perspicuity of scripture is tenable, then why do we have so many different Protestant denominations? I agree that there are Catholics who are dissident or are ignorant of the Church’s teaching. But those who have taken the time to read and study the Church’s teachings are in far more agreement than Protestant who study their Bibles.

After all, two people from two different traditions hear what Rome says two different ways. We cannot use the RCC to determine which tradition is true, because our choice of tradition would influence how we hear the RCC.
That is why our magisterium is a living magisterium, who can correct us when our mini-traditions get in the way of understanding him.
Also, only Romans are lead to believe that Rome has the tradition going all the way back to Jesus and his apostles.

John Henry Newman was one of the most famous Protestants in the 19th century. He set out to disprove Catholicism by showing that the Catholic doctrines originated in the Middle Ages. But he was always able to find the Catholic doctrines existing earlier and earlier, all the way up to the first and second centuries. He wrote about it in The Development of Christian Doctrine. Of course, any Protestant that realized that the Catholic Doctrine goes all the way back to the apostles would not remain Protestant for long. He converted to the Catholic Church.

I would encourage you to read the Early Church Fathers.

For instance, Ignatious of Antioch wrote to the Smyrnaeans (chapter 6) this in 110 AD:

Take note of those who hold heterodox [heretical] opinions on the grace of Jesus Christ which has come to us, and see how contrary their opinions are to the mind of God ... They abstain from the Eucharist and from prayer because they do not confess that the Eucharist is the flesh of our Savior Jesus Christ, flesh which suffered for our sins and which that Father, in his goodness, raised up again. They who deny the gift of God are perishing in their disputes.

Here he wrote that the heretics denied that the Eurcharist is the actual flesh of Christ. It is hard to interpret this otherwise.

But you also condemned things like the belief that God doesn't want us to kill heretics, and as such Rome's claim to doctrinal authority is nonsense.

That Catholics killed people for heresy is beyond dispute. But I do not recall that this was ever an official teaching of the Catholic Church. If it is, please cite the Council or papal decree. There is a difference between infallibility and impeccability. We are all sinners. Both Catholic and Protestants are guilty of atrocities. Christ did not promise the apostles that they would never sin but that the Holy Spirit would guide them into all truth.

The Church’s claim to doctrinal authority is no more nonsense than scripture’s claim to doctrinal authority. Actually, we Catholics believe in both. But Protestants have a problem with scripture being the only authority.

For probably the first twenty years of after Pentecost, there was no NT scripture written. So in the first twenty years of Christianity, what did Christians have as their doctrinal authority? The only scripture was the OT scripture. Was that their sole doctrinal authority? And even when the New Testament documents were written, all the separate documents were not compiled into one canon until the end og the fourth century, and that canon was approved by the pope. So if you reject that pope had the authority to approve the canon, then on what authority do you accept the New Testament canon?

Also, the printing press was not created until the 16th century. Until then, the Bible was extremely expensive. The average peasant could not afford to own a Bible. Also literacy was extremely low until the printing press was invented. It just seems a bit odd to me that God would set the Bible to be our sole doctrinal authority when for the first 1500 years the average person could not own the Bible or was illiterate and could not read it.
 
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Epiphoskei

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OK, I grant that the “robot” was not taught of in the Middle Ages. But they did know about predeterminism, which dates back before Christianity. Astrology taught that man had no free will, but was in the stars.

But a denial of free will is a denial of reason. After all, what is the point for either one of us to even discuss our ideas if each one of us is predetermined to believe what God wills us to believe? As Chesterton once said, if there is no free will, there is no point in even asking someone at the table to pass the salt.
Free will means both everything and nothing. That is the point I was trying to make earlier when I said this is not a dispute over the "whether" of free will, but the "what" of it.

Not really, because our magisterium is a living magisterium. A living magisterium can provide feedback if he notices that he is being misinterpreted, a book cannot.
But the feedback is still a communication, and communication isn't inherently perspicuous in your view. You're aiming for a middle ground that I do not believe exists.

John Henry Newman was one of the most famous Protestants in the 19th century. He set out to disprove Catholicism by showing that the Catholic doctrines originated in the Middle Ages. But he was always able to find the Catholic doctrines existing earlier and earlier, all the way up to the first and second centuries. He wrote about it in The Development of Christian Doctrine. Of course, any Protestant that realized that the Catholic Doctrine goes all the way back to the apostles would not remain Protestant for long. He converted to the Catholic Church.
I've heard of him once or twice, but it seems you've inflated the reputation of a very minor protestant (which itself is a dubious appellation for the Anglicans, who often, following the lead of Newman's colleagues in the Oxford Movement, suggested that the CoE was a middle path between Prots and Rome) to make some kind of point.

I would encourage you to read the Early Church Fathers.

For instance, Ignatious of Antioch wrote to the Smyrnaeans (chapter 6) this in 110 AD:

Take note of those who hold heterodox [heretical] opinions on the grace of Jesus Christ which has come to us, and see how contrary their opinions are to the mind of God ... They abstain from the Eucharist and from prayer because they do not confess that the Eucharist is the flesh of our Savior Jesus Christ, flesh which suffered for our sins and which that Father, in his goodness, raised up again. They who deny the gift of God are perishing in their disputes.

Here he wrote that the heretics denied that the Eurcharist is the actual flesh of Christ. It is hard to interpret this otherwise.
I don't see "actual" in that quote, and since he was disputing with Gnostics who denied that Christ had a body, it's much easier to understand him as referring to people who believed that Christ had no body for the Eucharist to represent, not to those who didn't adhere to the uniquely Aristotelian bit of Thomism known as transubstantiation.


That Catholics killed people for heresy is beyond dispute. But I do not recall that this was ever an official teaching of the Catholic Church. If it is, please cite the Council or papal decree.

Exsurge Domine, "In virtue of our pastoral office committed to us by the divine favor we can under no circumstances tolerate or overlook any longer the pernicious poison of the above errors without disgrace to the Christian religion and injury to orthodox faith. Some of these errors we have decided to include in the present document; their substance is as follows: [...] 33. That heretics be burned is against the will of the Spirit. "


There is a difference between infallibility and impeccability. We are all sinners. Both Catholic and Protestants are guilty of atrocities. Christ did not promise the apostles that they would never sin but that the Holy Spirit would guide them into all truth.
Sorry, no. You will know them by their fruit. The first criterion of being the church is that the church must not kill Christians. You may begin to claim that the RCC magesterium is even part of God's church at all when you present me with the living and not in any way burned alive body of Jan Hus.


Also, the printing press was not created until the 16th century. Until then, the Bible was extremely expensive. The average peasant could not afford to own a Bible. Also literacy was extremely low until the printing press was invented. It just seems a bit odd to me that God would set the Bible to be our sole doctrinal authority when for the first 1500 years the average person could not own the Bible or was illiterate and could not read it.
The Israelites would have had the same problem, and they managed.
 
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What do I mean by this? Ever since the KJV, I believe that John 3:16 has been mistranslated and isn't correct... none of the current Bible have it right either because of everyone comes from an Arminian viewpoint.... the verse, and I kid you not, is Calvinistic to the core, if it is translated correctly...

Joh 3:16 οὕτω γὰρ ἡγάπησεν ὁ Θεὸς τὸν κόσμον, ὥστε τὸν υἱὸν αὐτοῦ τὸν μονογενῆ ἔδωκεν, ἵνα πᾶς ὁ πιστεύων εἰς αὐτὸν μὴ ἀπόληται, ἀλλ᾿ ἔχῃ ζωὴν αἰώνιον.

For in this way God loved the world, that he gave his only son, in order that all the believing ones in him not destroyed, but shall have life of the ages.

The whole contention really centers on the "whosoever believeth" as in everyone had a "free-choice" in the matter of choosing or rejecting Christ... but if you view the verse by comparing scripture with scripture, and knowing that Christ's redemption actually saved people, not merely made salvation possible then it makes sense.... the verse really is just saying all those believing in Christ are saved... it's not to be understood in the sense that "whosoever" can come, but that all those already believing are saved (because obviously they were chosen...)

Can I get a witness from another Calvinist that knows Greek better than I? I've had four semesters of Greek, but I'm rusty.

To use language from the book of John, whosoever the Father draws to Christ, the way, the truth, and the life.
 
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AndOne

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Sorry, no. You will know them by their fruit. The first criterion of being the church is that the church must not kill Christians.

....or molest/sexually abuse their children.

Hate to bring it up - but it is one "fruit" that is an ugly truth that gives evidence that there is something very seriously wrong across the Tiber.
 
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nobdysfool

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....or molest/sexually abuse their children.

Hate to bring it up - but it is one "fruit" that is an ugly truth that gives evidence that there is something very seriously wrong across the Tiber.

Very true. :thumbsup:
 
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packermann

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Free will means both everything and nothing. That is the point I was trying to make earlier when I said this is not a dispute over the "whether" of free will, but the "what" of it.

Your argument here reveals to me the problem of Protestantism – that it eventually falls into subjectivism. There is no objectivie truth, because there is no agreement on what the truth is.

You are right that Christians cannot even agree on the definition of free will. But that is only Protestant Christians. Protestant Christians cannot agree what free will is, let alone whether it exists. But you can say this about any point of doctrine. There is a reason there is no such thing as Protestant theology.

But Catholicism has a central authority, a magisterium. It can officially define things, and officially determine what is truth.

I looked at your profile, and you describe yourself as a conservative Christian. I mean no offense, but what you are saying seems to be more in line with what a post-modern nihilist would say. Your asking what is free will reminds me of Pontius Pilate asking what is truth. If we cannot know what is free will then can we know of anything else?

But the feedback is still a communication, and communication isn't inherently perspicuous in your view. You're aiming for a middle ground that I do not believe exists.

I never said that communication isn't inherently perspicuous. If communication is not perspicuous, then why are we wasting our time on this forum?

There is a difference between live communication and reading a book that was written 2,000 years ago.
I've heard of him once or twice, but it seems you've inflated the reputation of a very minor protestant (which itself is a dubious appellation for the Anglicans, who often, following the lead of Newman's colleagues in the Oxford Movement, suggested that the CoE was a middle path between Prots and Rome) to make some kind of point

If you only heard of him once or twice, then how can you be qualified to label him as a minor Protestant? Please do some study on Newman, and then we can discuss whether he was a “minor” Protestant.

I don't see "actual" in that quote, and since he was disputing with Gnostics who denied that Christ had a body, it's much easier to understand him as referring to people who believed that Christ had no body for the Eucharist to represent, not to those who didn't adhere to the uniquely Aristotelian bit of Thomism known as transubstantiation.

Funny, I do not see “represent” in that quote, either.

Here is the quote again, I emboldened that parts that shows that “represent” is completely foreign to the passage.

Take note of those who hold heterodox [heretical] opinions on the grace of Jesus Christ which has come to us, and see how contrary their opinions are to the mind of God ... They abstain from the Eucharist and from prayer because they do not confess that the Eucharist is the flesh of our Savior Jesus Christ, flesh which suffered for our sins and which that Father, in his goodness, raised up again. They who deny the gift of God are perishing in their disputes.

Ignatius is saying the Eucharist IS the flesh of Christ, the flesh WHICH SUFFERED. True, this is not Thomism. How can it be, since this was written 1,000 before Thomas Aquinas? And it is not explicitly teaching transubstantiation. But neither does the Bible explicitly teach the Trinity.
Too bad you know so little of John Newman. He explained it clearly in his book The Development of Christian Doctrine. The truth in the first century was a kernel. As Jesus himself said, the kingdom of God started as a small mustard seed, and grows into a large tree. God did not dump His revelation fully developed. The Holy Spirit nurtures it. So although the first-century Christians would not know what “Trinity” meant, they still, understood that you had God the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit. Each is a unique Person, each is to be adored. And yet God is one, and only God is worshipped. Later on, the Church elaborated on this with the doctrine of the Trinity – One essence with three distinct persons. This may be a bit Aristotelian, but the doctrine was needed to be elaborated in order to respond to the heresies in the fourth and fifth centuries. And the Trinity was still faithful to the kernel preaching from the very beginning.
In the same way, although Ignatius was not explaining it the way the Church would later explain, but he still taught that the Eucharist IS THE FLESH of Jesus Christ.

Now, if you want to only go as far that, by all means, do so. Do you believe that the Eucharist is the flesh of Jesus Christ? Forget about “transubstantiation”. Our Eastern Orthodox brethren, like you, do not like the doctrine of transubstantiation, not because they believe that it only represents the body of Christ, but because they feel that we should not take away the mystery of it being the flesh of Christ. They believe that the Eucharist IS the body and blood of Christ. It does not merely “represent” the body and blood of Christ. And according to the Catholic Church, the Orthodox have a valid Eucharist.

So the issue is this: Do you believe, along with Ignatius, that the Eucharist IS the flesh of Christ? If you come back with the Eucharist ONLY REPRESENTS the body of Christ, then you are reading your own thoughts into Ignatius, far exceeding any transubstiation would.

Exsurge Domine, "In virtue of our pastoral office committed to us by the divine favor we can under no circumstances tolerate or overlook any longer the pernicious poison of the above errors without disgrace to the Christian religion and injury to orthodox faith. Some of these errors we have decided to include in the present document; their substance is as follows: [...] 33. That heretics be burned is against the will of the Spirit. "

I agree this is a difficult passage. But there are far more difficult passages found in the Bible itself

Command to execute homosexuals

13 ‘If there is a man who lies with a male as those who lie with a woman, both of them have committed a detestable act; they shall surely be put to death. Their bloodguiltiness is upon them
Lev 20:13

Command execute those who disobey their parents

18If a man have a stubborn and rebellious son, which will not obey the voice of his father, or the voice of his mother, and that, when they have chastened him, will not hearken unto them:

19Then shall his father and his mother lay hold on him, and bring him out unto the elders of his city, and unto the gate of his place;
20And they shall say unto the elders of his city, This our son is stubborn and rebellious, he will not obey our voice; he is a glutton, and a drunkard. 21And all the men of his city shall stone him with stones, that he die: so shalt thou put evil away from among you; and all Israel shall hear, and fear.
Deuteronomy 21:18-21

It is not enough to say that these are in the Old Testament, and not in the New. Jesus Christ is the same yesterday, today, and forever. It is easy for us to condemn a different culture. We today think it is terrible to kill someone for their faith or their personal morality. But we go to war because of a certain political ideology. Back then, there was no such thing as separation of church and state. A person’s theology affected a person’s politics. A heretic in the OT times or the Middle Ages was not just the exchanging ideas but was advocating the overthrow of the existing government. Even the civil leaders punished heresy because the overthrow of the existing theology usually preceded the overthrow of the existing government. As the Reformation showed, the introduction of new doctrine brought on bloodshed, even even between Protestants.


Exsurge Domine was not saying that we should burn heretics, but that burning heretics was not against the Spirit. If executing people for religious reasons was against the Spirit, then one would then have to say that God Himself in the Old Testament issued commands that went against the Spirit. If that is the case, we might as well throw away the Bible.

Also, this was a papal bull, and it was not ex cathedra. So this document can be wrong. A pope is only infallible in matters of dogma and morality, not church discipline. Ex cathedra must be officially announced that this is binding to all Christians. A faithful Catholic can disagree with this document.



Sorry, no. You will know them by their fruit. The first criterion of being the church is that the church must not kill Christians. You may begin to claim that the RCC magesterium is even part of God's church at all when you present me with the living and not in any way burned alive body of Jan Hus.
If that is your criteria, then Protestants are not part of the church either.

Martin Luther was originally on the side of the peasants revolting against their leaders but then betrayed them and advocated that the rulers slaughter the peasants in the Peasant Revolt.

Martin Luther also taught that their Anabaptist brothers and sisters should be put into sacks and thrown into sea to be drowned.

John Calvin had Michael Servitus executed for heresy.

Zwingli went to war against his fellow Protestant Christians.

The Protestant Christians in England killed Catholics AND Puritans. In fact, the reason the Puritans came to America was to escape persecution from their fellow Protestants in England.

So if the criteria of the church is not to kill Christians, then I am afraid we are without any church.
 
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