Ishmael ... Not a Son of Abraham?

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Luzeiro

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Please let's look at the Bible and try to understand why Abraham's only son is Isaac. Are you willing to do that? Yes or No.

You can "try to understand why Abraham's only son is Isaac" if that's what you want..

but the BIble tells us differently..

For instance....

And Hagar bare Abraham a son: and Abram called his son's name, which Hagar bare, Ishmael.

- Genesis 16:15

Then again Abraham took a wife, and her name was Keturah. And she bare him Zimran, and Jokshan, and Medan, and Midian, and Ishbak, and Shuah.

- Genesis 25:1,2


For Sarah conceived, and bare Abraham a son is his old age .... And Abraham called him Isaac.

- Genesis 21:2,3
You can turn the bible and history inside out and you will not find a connection between Ishmael and arabs. That is a fond contradiction by muslims, who do not realize that arabs were present before mahomet hit the scene; they were pagans and they still are. Let it percolate.
 
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peaceful soul

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Originally Posted by Arthra
Please let's look at the Bible and try to understand why Abraham's only son is Isaac. Are you willing to do that? Yes or No.

You can "try to understand why Abraham's only son is Isaac" if that's what you want..

but the BIble tells us differently..

For instance....

And Hagar bare Abraham a son: and Abram called his son's name, which Hagar bare, Ishmael.

- Genesis 16:15

Then again Abraham took a wife, and her name was Keturah. And she bare him Zimran, and Jokshan, and Medan, and Midian, and Ishbak, and Shuah.

- Genesis 25:1,2


For Sarah conceived, and bare Abraham a son is his old age .... And Abraham called him Isaac.

- Genesis 21:2,3

Since Luzeiro made a comment on this quote, I will as well. Arthra, the understanding is not rooted in genetics. It is rooted in inheritance and legalalities. By birth, Abraham had 2 sons, but by law, he only has 1 son as I have referenced by the Sumerian or Hammurabi codes of law, which was in force where Abraham lived. Why? Both sets of laws prescribed the same legal rulings concerning inheritance. Only Isaac can be called the only son in legal matters involving inheritance. Secondly, God promised Abraham and Sarah a son well before Hagar was on the scene. Going back to Genesls 12, we can see that when the promise was first given, Abraham's legal wife was Sarai. The inferrence is that the child would be born of their flesh--not a substitute (Hagar). It is very important to note that the Bible never sanctions the relationship of Abraham with Hagar. It only sanctions the one between Abraham and his legal wife, Sarah. Also we can note that God only gives a Covenant through Isaac and only a promise through Ishael. A promise is not a binding agreement like a covenant is. Covenants require two parties minimun to engage in agreement. When God promised the offspring of Ishmael to be a great nation, there was no agreement that Ishamael had to make to receive that blessing, but we see with Isaac that he was required to keep a covenant that started with his father, Abraham. Part of keeping that covenant was circumcision. Circumcision is not shown as a requirement that God made on Ishmael or any other act for that matter.

I noticed that you are quoting the verse about Abraham having other children besides Ishmael and Isaac. Exactly what does that have to do with discussion? Do you realize that at the time of the passage about the only son, there were only two sons. There were no other sons to consider at that time.
 
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BruceDLimber

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Greetings.

It is evident from your unwillingness to answer my questions that you wouldn't use the same tactics against the Bible to also reinterpret your own scriptures.

"Reinterpretation" isn't necessary for ours because official interpretations already exist!

That said, we're also individually free to hold any additional interpretations of our own that are consistent with these, so long as we don't then try to promote them as official or expect others to adhere to them.

Would you like me to use the same rules to interpret Baha'i scriptures?

As I already said, you're fully free to address the Baha'i scriptures using whatever bases and criteria you choose! (Though if you are indeed going to use the same rules, this means that you should address our scriptures using them as their own starting point just as you use the Bible as its own starting point! "Same rules" means same rules. <"Sauce for the goose" and all that . . .>)

Even using the Bible as basis, though, we find that the Baha'i scriptures still match extremely well, the more so given the many prophecies in both the Jewish and Christian scriptures that the Baha'i Faith fulfills! (There are web sites and other resources I can cite if you'd like to see more details about this.) In this respect, the many passages in the Baha'i scriptures that address the Bible are simply vast additional benefit--icing on the cake, of you like.

And I assure you that we Baha'is revere and respect the Bible far more than you realize!

Peace,

Bruce
 
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Arthra

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"Do you realize that at the time of the passage about the only son, there were only two sons. There were no other sons to consider at that time."

Did you realize that the only time Abraham had only one son was for the fourteen yearts before Isaac was born...?

God's promises were for the descendents of Abraham and these included His sons by Sarah, by Hagar and by Keturih.

Yes the Bible follows the descent from Isaac.

My belief and based on my study of the text does not support the followiong in the opening post of this thread:

"Ishmael and Hagar were tossed out into the desert because Ishmael was becoming a terror and a negative influence for Isaac."

There's very little to support I believe such a negative view of Ishmael.

- Art
 
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Luzeiro

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"Do you realize that at the time of the passage about the only son, there were only two sons. There were no other sons to consider at that time."

Did you realize that the only time Abraham had only one son was for the fourteen yearts before Isaac was born...?

God's promises were for the descendents of Abraham and these included His sons by Sarah, by Hagar and by Keturih.

Yes the Bible follows the descent from Isaac.

My belief and based on my study of the text does not support the followiong in the opening post of this thread:

"Ishmael and Hagar were tossed out into the desert because Ishmael was becoming a terror and a negative influence for Isaac."

There's very little to support I believe such a negative view of Ishmael.

- Art
Why does the muslim concern himself with Ishmael? The latter has not a thing to do with islam. Discussing Ishmael here is no different from discussing Santa Claus. Neither are in any way related to Islam. Ishmael is not your father, nor is Santa Claus. Let it percolate.
 
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Arthra

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Why does the muslim concern himself with Ishmael? The latter has not a thing to do with islam. Discussing Ishmael here is no different from discussing Santa Claus. Neither are in any way related to Islam. Ishmael is not your father, nor is Santa Claus. Let it percolate.

Thanks for your post Luzeiro..

You may not realize this but I am a Baha'i.

There is a difference here I believe between Santa Claus and Ishmael ..

Ishmael was the eldest son of Abraham and the only son of His for fourteen years..until the birth of Isaac. One of the issues in this thread is who was the child that Abhraham was asked to sacrifice. The Bible says it was Isaac but consider the verse:

Some time later God tested Abraham. He said to him, ‘Abraham!’ ‘Here I am,’ he replied. Then God said, ‘Take your son, your only son, Isaac, whom you love, and go to the region of Moriah. Sacrifice him there as a burnt offering on one of the mountains I will tell you about.’

Clearly Abraham loved Ishmael and Ishamel was His only son... So there is some question about who it was Ishamel or Isaac to be sacrificed.

Spiritually the essence of the passage is that Abraham was asked to sacrifice His son which for Him was His all in life.. and being tested He passed and was willing to sacrifice His son.

The name of Ishmael ( is translated literally as "God has hearkened", suggesting that "a child so named was regarded as the fulfillment of a divine promise") was suggested by an angel of the Lord

The angel of the LORD also said to her: "You are now with child and you will have a son. You shall name him Ishmael, for the LORD has heard of your misery.

- Genesis 16:11

and he was according to the Bible exiled with his mother Hagar to a desert place..

The Lord provided for Ishmael and his mother and the promise of God was that from the descendents of Ishmael would come a mighty nation...

Isaac is specifically blessed but Ishmael was also promised by God to become "a great nation" especially in Genesis 21:13, 17-20.

And also of the son of the handmaid will I make a nation, because he is thy seed....

17And God heard the voice of the lad; and the angel of God called to Hagar out of heaven, and said unto her, What aileth thee, Hagar? fear not; for God hath heard the voice of the lad where he is.

18 Arise, lift up the lad, and hold him in thine hand; for I will make him a great nation.
19 And God opened her eyes, and she saw a well of water; and she went, and filled the bottle with water, and gave the lad drink. 20And God was with the lad; and he grew, and dwelt in the wilderness, and became an archer.

Yes Ishmael is associated as a progenitor of the Arabian peoples just as Isaac is associated with the Hebrews.. The only time in history the Arabs were truly united as a mighty nation or "Umma" was during the early Islamic history.

So we are not talking about any Santa Claus here...

- Art
 
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peaceful soul

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originally posted by BruceDLimber

Greetings.



"Reinterpretation" isn't necessary for ours because official interpretations already exist!
You live in a unrealistic world. Any interpretation, regardless of its claims, is still an interpretation and is subjected to the same issues as any other text. As a Christian, I realize these types of problems and issues. That is why I am trying to open your eyes a bit. I don't know if it is working though.;)

Your prophet, Baha'ullah reinterpreted the Bible and other scriptures in making his claims about the Baha'i faith. The House of Justice interprets things that are debated and disputed within the Baha'i faith. Honesty is important here. Don't try to paint your religion as infallible to criticism and error.

That said, we're also individually free to hold any additional interpretations of our own that are consistent with these, so long as we don't then try to promote them as official or expect others to adhere to them.
I highlighted (red) some the key texts. That is exactly why I was explaining to you about making comments about the Bible. Had you just said that this was an opinion from a Baha'i perspective and then asked what the scriptures meant in Christian context, probably none of these long dialogs would have occurred. The OP didn't imply that opinions outside of the Biblical perspective were to be given in understanding. That would defer the Biblical context to other sources, thus distorting the actual Biblical meaning. I am happy that you at least recognize the problem that I have been trying to get you to see.:clap:

As I already said, you're fully free to address the Baha'i scriptures using whatever bases and criteria you choose! (Though if you are indeed going to use the same rules, this means that you should address our scriptures using them as their own starting point just as you use the Bible as its own starting point!
You are not understanding what I was saying. If one is just giving an opinion, that is not the problem; however, when you give weight to your opinion as if it is the rule of interpretation, then you have overstepped your boundaries, given that you don't adhere to the text that you are trying to apply your interpretation to while additionally not reading and studying to learn the context of that scripture.

I was using this to point out your absurdity of trying to interpret the Bible through the Baha'i scriptures. As I have already stated, you would not want Christians or Muslims reciprocating that same standard that you were using.

It should be obvious because you will quickly point out that Baha'i scriptures don't say this or that. Why could you make that claim? Because you would have hopefully studied the scriptures and found the context to support your statement. This is no different with the Bible. Some of us have studied certain portions of the Bible and understand them very well. That is why I am discussing this topic with you. I have studied and realized that "only son" is not to be taken in a literal fashion with a denoted meaning of one son born. It is talking from both a historical perspective with legal implications and a promised given to Abraham (Biblical) regarding one son being born of the flesh of both Abraham and his legal wife, Sarah. Just like the word green, when used today in many circles denotes clean air/environment, we would not understand that it was not referring to color until we looked at the context in which it was being used. Studying requires careful attention to details about the text that you will not find in using sources not rooted in these specifics.

Using the same rules alone would not be the correct procedure. The rules would have to pass certain tests to determine if they are logical and sound methods. In the example that I gave you, if we both used the same rules by allowing each other's interpretation to usurp the contextual interpretation of our perspective scriptures, we would end up having each scripture redefining the other. That is neither fruitful nor proper in arriving at the correct contexts and meanings.

One other thing to point out: your scriptures came after the Bible and bear the burden of justifying any thing that it says about the Bible. Having all things equal, the Bible would have an assumed authority in determining whether the Baha'i scriptures are authentic, but the Baha'i scriptures can't reciprocate this with the Bible. I am speaking from a point of chronology.

"Same rules" means same rules. <"Sauce for the goose" and all that . . .>)
What I am saying is that you did not want to apply the same rules since Baha'is would not accept my interpretation as being official. You said that your scriptures explain the Bible well and effectively interpret them. If that is true, then the logical conclusion is that your scriptures can replace any Biblical interpretation and become official for Christians. Whether you said those exact words or not, that is the most logical conclusion, given what you said and how you responded. That is why I was calling you out on making some fallacious reasonings. If that was not what you were trying to do, you would not have insisted that your scriptures should be used. You would have simply given your opinion and proceeded to continue discussion and asking Christians what these scriptures actually meant. You didn't do that.

Even using the Bible as basis, though, we find that the Baha'i scriptures still match extremely well, the more so given the many prophecies in both the Jewish and Christian scriptures that the Baha'i Faith fulfills!
This is one of the fallacious reasonings that you need to investigate. It doesn't matter how closely they match, they are different texts written in different times and have different contexts. If you ignore these two important facts, then you are going to make false comparisons and claim that they are the same. You will perpetuate a distorted and incorrect conclusion about the Bible while over inflating the sense that your scriptures are correct on that point. Similarities don't create authenticity. I have noticed that you and Arthra use this approach a lot. You quote similarities and then conclude a peaceful coexistence of two conflicting texts. Logic dictates that you also evaluate the differences since this is how you learn to distinguish things. You can't tell that things are not alike if you don't look at the characteristics that make them different. The negative characteristics have just as much significance, if not more, than likenesses. You would not be able to make good moral judgments if you live in a world of similarities. To overuse similarities is to live in a distorted world. You will live in a world where the sun is always shining, the sky is always blue, and there is no meaningful distinction between moral and immoral. Opposites eventually become non-opposites because you learn to see them that way.

Those prophecies you refer are overinflated and lack proper Biblical exegesis. They heavily rely upon symbolism and mysticism, which is a concept foreign to interpreting the Bible. It is not surprising that your prophet can make glaring similarities about the Bible since the Bible was already known to most of the world by the 1800s. Your prophet had the potential to access all kinds of books, commentaries, etc. on the Bible to make his writings seem authentic.

(There are web sites and other resources I can cite if you'd like to see more details about this.)
I am aware of some of them. All of them have holes in their arguments and make presumptions that are unwarranted. They are marooted in logical fallacies. They assume that Baha'u'llah is a prophet of God and then presume that all religions came from the same source and that all of the other ones except yours became flawed, but somehow your religion was immune to all of the pitfalls of men before your prophet came along. That is not real life. If the same god was responsible for sending down revelations before, then it would be consistent that god protected all of his religions in the same way that he protected yours. This is part of what I am talking about when I say that the same rules must apply to your religion as the other ones. The bottom line is that your religion is somehow above being misinterpreted, misunderstood, and not needing explaining.

In this respect, the many passages in the Baha'i scriptures that address the Bible are simply vast additional benefit--icing on the cake, of you like.
There is no benefit in being wrong and believing false things. From your perspective, you may see it as enlightenment, but from a Christian perspective, you are simply being duped. You have no Biblical context to understand the passages. You are reading them through a third party who was not even contemporary to those events and didn't have any context to those events. Of course, you natural response is that your scriptures are true, but you can't say how except that your prophet said they were. That does not cut it with any learned Christian like me. I don't claim to know everything about the Bible, but I can tell that you have little clue about how to read the Bible and gain its intended meanings.

And I assure you that we Baha'is revere and respect the Bible far more than you realize!

Peace,

Bruce
Yes, I am aware of your claims, but they are very empty. Respect means something different to you than to me. You can respect that there is a book called the Bible but you don't respect its ability to guide your life. You use Baha'i scriptures for that. But, you will say that they are the same in some generic way such as "they both provide guidance", have the same basic messages; and all religions were relevant for their time and place. All of that is just empty patronizing stuff filled with fluff. It is impossible to respect something that you don't even care about to base your life on it. In some twisted way, you will assert that you do.;)

Anyways, I hope that I explained myself thoroughly (long post) so that you get the complete picture of where I stand and what I think. I am glad that you at least realize the logical problem with unofficial interpretations. I will now devote my time to explaining what the OP is saying. I hope that we can get back to that. Feel free to ask questions on anything that I say if you need clarity or disagree. You will find that I do welcome disagreements, but I want substance behind them and for one be able to back up their points with reasonable evidence. I don't like someone to say that their scriptures say so and that somehow establishes a fact. That is very unconvincing to me.
 
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BruceDLimber

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Greetings.

The House of Justice interprets things that are debated and disputed within the Baha'i faith.

You couldn't be more wrong here!

The House of Justice interprets NOTHING!! That is not its role.

The only official interpretaions we have (or will have) are those by 'Abdu'l-Baha and Shoghi Effendi, all of which were published decades ago.

[W]hen you give weight to your opinion as if it is the rule of interpretation, then . . .

Nope. I'm not speaking of (or using) my opinions. I'm speaking of what the Baha'i Faith itself teaches via its scriptures.

I was using this to point out your absurdity of trying to interpret the Bible through the Baha'i scriptures.

I disagree profoundly.

As I have already stated, you would not want Christians or Muslims reciprocating that same standard that you were using.

HOW MANY TIMES do I have to repeat the same thing??!!!!!

YET AGAIN:

Bruce said:
As I already said, you're fully free to address the Baha'i scriptures using whatever bases and criteria you choose!

It should be obvious because you will quickly point out that Baha'i scriptures don't say this or that. Why could you make that claim? Because you would have hopefully studied the scriptures and found the context to support your statement. This is no different with the Bible. Some of us have studied certain portions of the Bible and understand them very well.

I've studied both, thank you! (And apparently, you haven't.)

Using the same rules alone would not be the correct procedure. The rules would have to pass certain tests to determine if they are logical and sound methods.

Agreed, and I've found the Baha'i Faith to pass the tests, thank you! Otherwise I wouldn't be a Baha'i.

And please note that one of the rules (like it or not) is NOT that the Bible is ipso facto correct in anything and everything it says.

One other thing to point out: your scriptures came after the Bible and bear the burden of justifying any thing that it says about the Bible.

Which burden they fulfill quite nicely IME, thank you!

Having all things equal, the Bible would have an assumed authority in determining whether the Baha'i scriptures are authentic, but the Baha'i scriptures can't reciprocate this with the Bible. I am speaking from a point of chronology.

Spurious argement. Things that follow are necessarily later than earlier things. This is obvious, and no point to argue.

And not only the Bible but Jesus Himself prophesied that there was more to come: the Comforter or Spirit of Truth, for one, Whom we see as being Baha'u'llah (our Founder)!

What I am saying is that you did not want to apply the same rules since Baha'is would not accept my interpretation as being official.

So what? My interpretation isn't, either, as I've already pointed out!

You said that your scriptures explain the Bible well and effectively interpret them. If that is true, then the logical conclusion is that your scriptures can replace any Biblical interpretation and become official for Christians. Whether you said those exact words or not, that is the most logical conclusion, given what you said and how you responded.

Just as they have indeed already done for millions of Christians! :)

[T]hey are different texts written in different times and have different contexts.

Of course, but that in no way invalidate either of them!

The exact same thing is true, for example, about the Jewish and Christian scriptures!

If you ignore these two important facts, then you are going to make false comparisons and claim that they are the same.

No, I don't claim they're the same. We say they're all part of a single religious tradition (and faith), the Faith of God!

You will perpetuate a distorted and incorrect conclusion about the Bible while over inflating the sense that your scriptures are correct on that point.

Only in your opinion. A few million of us disagree.
Those prophecies you refer are overinflated and lack proper Biblical exegesis. They heavily rely upon symbolism and mysticism, which is a concept foreign to interpreting the Bible.

Except, of course, for those instances when Christians rely upon symbolism and mysticism! :-S

And these prophecies are quite well-documented and surprisingly consistent (for anyone who actually cares to check into them)! Biblical exegesis abounds! Indeed, I can show you (or send you if you prefer) a good 300 pages of this right now from materials I already have immediately at hand.

Your prophet had the potential to access all kinds of books, commentaries, etc. on the Bible to make his writings seem authentic.

Other than the fact that He was imprisioned and denied such things.

omehow your religion was immune to all of the pitfalls of men before your prophet came along.


What on earth are you talking about?!

The Baha'i Faith didn't exist until Baha'u'llah founded it! I'm sorry, but you apparently know even less Baha'i history than I'd thought.

If the same god was responsible for sending down revelations before, then it would be consistent that god protected all of his religions in the same way that he protected yours.

The issue isn't God, but the way humans alter and corrupt religions!

This is part of what I am talking about when I say that the same rules must apply to your religion as the other ones. The bottom line is that your religion is somehow above being misinterpreted, misunderstood, and not needing explaining.

Not at all!

It can still be misunderstood, and this regrettably happens and has happened.

There is no benefit in being wrong and believing false things. From your perspective, you may see it as enlightenment, but from a Christian perspective, you are simply being duped.

On the contrary, IME the fruits of the Baha'i Faith reflect its goodness extremely well, thankyouverymuch! :)

I still hold that you have to examine our scriptures on their own merit, free of prejudice ("pre-judging") and bias, which so far as I can tell you've never truly done.

So you are still cordially invited to do so. I'd be more than happy to suggest a few recommended titles.

Peace, :)

Bruce
 
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Luzeiro

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Thanks for your post Luzeiro..

You may not realize this but I am a Baha'i.

There is a difference here I believe between Santa Claus and Ishmael ..

Ishmael was the eldest son of Abraham and the only son of His for fourteen years..until the birth of Isaac. One of the issues in this thread is who was the child that Abhraham was asked to sacrifice. The Bible says it was Isaac but consider the verse:

Some time later God tested Abraham. He said to him, ‘Abraham!’ ‘Here I am,’ he replied. Then God said, ‘Take your son, your only son, Isaac, whom you love, and go to the region of Moriah. Sacrifice him there as a burnt offering on one of the mountains I will tell you about.’

Clearly Abraham loved Ishmael and Ishamel was His only son... So there is some question about who it was Ishamel or Isaac to be sacrificed.

Spiritually the essence of the passage is that Abraham was asked to sacrifice His son which for Him was His all in life.. and being tested He passed and was willing to sacrifice His son.

The name of Ishmael ( is translated literally as "God has hearkened", suggesting that "a child so named was regarded as the fulfillment of a divine promise") was suggested by an angel of the Lord

The angel of the LORD also said to her: "You are now with child and you will have a son. You shall name him Ishmael, for the LORD has heard of your misery.

- Genesis 16:11

and he was according to the Bible exiled with his mother Hagar to a desert place..

The Lord provided for Ishmael and his mother and the promise of God was that from the descendents of Ishmael would come a mighty nation...

Isaac is specifically blessed but Ishmael was also promised by God to become "a great nation" especially in Genesis 21:13, 17-20.

And also of the son of the handmaid will I make a nation, because he is thy seed....

17And God heard the voice of the lad; and the angel of God called to Hagar out of heaven, and said unto her, What aileth thee, Hagar? fear not; for God hath heard the voice of the lad where he is.

18 Arise, lift up the lad, and hold him in thine hand; for I will make him a great nation.
19 And God opened her eyes, and she saw a well of water; and she went, and filled the bottle with water, and gave the lad drink. 20And God was with the lad; and he grew, and dwelt in the wilderness, and became an archer.

Yes Ishmael is associated as a progenitor of the Arabian peoples just as Isaac is associated with the Hebrews.. The only time in history the Arabs were truly united as a mighty nation or "Umma" was during the early Islamic history.

So we are not talking about any Santa Claus here...

- Art
You make the same assumptions about Ishmael that muslims do and in doing so, you speak for muslims; therefore, Bahai means nothing to me. Ishmael in connection with muslims is islam tradition, not fact.
 
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Luzeiro

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originally posted by BruceDLimber

You live in a unrealistic world. Any interpretation, regardless of its claims, is still an interpretation and is subjected to the same issues as any other text. As a Christian, I realize these types of problems and issues. That is why I am trying to open your eyes a bit. I don't know if it is working though.;)

Your prophet, Baha'ullah reinterpreted the Bible and other scriptures in making his claims about the Baha'i faith. The House of Justice interprets things that are debated and disputed within the Baha'i faith. Honesty is important here. Don't try to paint your religion as infallible to criticism and error.

I highlighted (red) some the key texts. That is exactly why I was explaining to you about making comments about the Bible. Had you just said that this was an opinion from a Baha'i perspective and then asked what the scriptures meant in Christian context, probably none of these long dialogs would have occurred. The OP didn't imply that opinions outside of the Biblical perspective were to be given in understanding. That would defer the Biblical context to other sources, thus distorting the actual Biblical meaning. I am happy that you at least recognize the problem that I have been trying to get you to see.:clap:

You are not understanding what I was saying. If one is just giving an opinion, that is not the problem; however, when you give weight to your opinion as if it is the rule of interpretation, then you have overstepped your boundaries, given that you don't adhere to the text that you are trying to apply your interpretation to while additionally not reading and studying to learn the context of that scripture.

I was using this to point out your absurdity of trying to interpret the Bible through the Baha'i scriptures. As I have already stated, you would not want Christians or Muslims reciprocating that same standard that you were using.

It should be obvious because you will quickly point out that Baha'i scriptures don't say this or that. Why could you make that claim? Because you would have hopefully studied the scriptures and found the context to support your statement. This is no different with the Bible. Some of us have studied certain portions of the Bible and understand them very well. That is why I am discussing this topic with you. I have studied and realized that "only son" is not to be taken in a literal fashion with a denoted meaning of one son born. It is talking from both a historical perspective with legal implications and a promised given to Abraham (Biblical) regarding one son being born of the flesh of both Abraham and his legal wife, Sarah. Just like the word green, when used today in many circles denotes clean air/environment, we would not understand that it was not referring to color until we looked at the context in which it was being used. Studying requires careful attention to details about the text that you will not find in using sources not rooted in these specifics.

Using the same rules alone would not be the correct procedure. The rules would have to pass certain tests to determine if they are logical and sound methods. In the example that I gave you, if we both used the same rules by allowing each other's interpretation to usurp the contextual interpretation of our perspective scriptures, we would end up having each scripture redefining the other. That is neither fruitful nor proper in arriving at the correct contexts and meanings.

One other thing to point out: your scriptures came after the Bible and bear the burden of justifying any thing that it says about the Bible. Having all things equal, the Bible would have an assumed authority in determining whether the Baha'i scriptures are authentic, but the Baha'i scriptures can't reciprocate this with the Bible. I am speaking from a point of chronology.

What I am saying is that you did not want to apply the same rules since Baha'is would not accept my interpretation as being official. You said that your scriptures explain the Bible well and effectively interpret them. If that is true, then the logical conclusion is that your scriptures can replace any Biblical interpretation and become official for Christians. Whether you said those exact words or not, that is the most logical conclusion, given what you said and how you responded. That is why I was calling you out on making some fallacious reasonings. If that was not what you were trying to do, you would not have insisted that your scriptures should be used. You would have simply given your opinion and proceeded to continue discussion and asking Christians what these scriptures actually meant. You didn't do that.

This is one of the fallacious reasonings that you need to investigate. It doesn't matter how closely they match, they are different texts written in different times and have different contexts. If you ignore these two important facts, then you are going to make false comparisons and claim that they are the same. You will perpetuate a distorted and incorrect conclusion about the Bible while over inflating the sense that your scriptures are correct on that point. Similarities don't create authenticity. I have noticed that you and Arthra use this approach a lot. You quote similarities and then conclude a peaceful coexistence of two conflicting texts. Logic dictates that you also evaluate the differences since this is how you learn to distinguish things. You can't tell that things are not alike if you don't look at the characteristics that make them different. The negative characteristics have just as much significance, if not more, than likenesses. You would not be able to make good moral judgments if you live in a world of similarities. To overuse similarities is to live in a distorted world. You will live in a world where the sun is always shining, the sky is always blue, and there is no meaningful distinction between moral and immoral. Opposites eventually become non-opposites because you learn to see them that way.

Those prophecies you refer are overinflated and lack proper Biblical exegesis. They heavily rely upon symbolism and mysticism, which is a concept foreign to interpreting the Bible. It is not surprising that your prophet can make glaring similarities about the Bible since the Bible was already known to most of the world by the 1800s. Your prophet had the potential to access all kinds of books, commentaries, etc. on the Bible to make his writings seem authentic.

I am aware of some of them. All of them have holes in their arguments and make presumptions that are unwarranted. They are marooted in logical fallacies. They assume that Baha'u'llah is a prophet of God and then presume that all religions came from the same source and that all of the other ones except yours became flawed, but somehow your religion was immune to all of the pitfalls of men before your prophet came along. That is not real life. If the same god was responsible for sending down revelations before, then it would be consistent that god protected all of his religions in the same way that he protected yours. This is part of what I am talking about when I say that the same rules must apply to your religion as the other ones. The bottom line is that your religion is somehow above being misinterpreted, misunderstood, and not needing explaining.

There is no benefit in being wrong and believing false things. From your perspective, you may see it as enlightenment, but from a Christian perspective, you are simply being duped. You have no Biblical context to understand the passages. You are reading them through a third party who was not even contemporary to those events and didn't have any context to those events. Of course, you natural response is that your scriptures are true, but you can't say how except that your prophet said they were. That does not cut it with any learned Christian like me. I don't claim to know everything about the Bible, but I can tell that you have little clue about how to read the Bible and gain its intended meanings.

Yes, I am aware of your claims, but they are very empty. Respect means something different to you than to me. You can respect that there is a book called the Bible but you don't respect its ability to guide your life. You use Baha'i scriptures for that. But, you will say that they are the same in some generic way such as "they both provide guidance", have the same basic messages; and all religions were relevant for their time and place. All of that is just empty patronizing stuff filled with fluff. It is impossible to respect something that you don't even care about to base your life on it. In some twisted way, you will assert that you do.;)

Anyways, I hope that I explained myself thoroughly (long post) so that you get the complete picture of where I stand and what I think. I am glad that you at least realize the logical problem with unofficial interpretations. I will now devote my time to explaining what the OP is saying. I hope that we can get back to that. Feel free to ask questions on anything that I say if you need clarity or disagree. You will find that I do welcome disagreements, but I want substance behind them and for one be able to back up their points with reasonable evidence. I don't like someone to say that their scriptures say so and that somehow establishes a fact. That is very unconvincing to me.
You are correct about respect. It is meaningless vis a vis the bible and what it contains toward eternal life. I respect the manual of my car; and the recipe I love for making donuts. Neither has a thing to do with Jesus and His promises.
 
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Luzeiro

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Greetings.



"Reinterpretation" isn't necessary for ours because official interpretations already exist!

That said, we're also individually free to hold any additional interpretations of our own that are consistent with these, so long as we don't then try to promote them as official or expect others to adhere to them.



As I already said, you're fully free to address the Baha'i scriptures using whatever bases and criteria you choose! (Though if you are indeed going to use the same rules, this means that you should address our scriptures using them as their own starting point just as you use the Bible as its own starting point! "Same rules" means same rules. <"Sauce for the goose" and all that . . .>)

Even using the Bible as basis, though, we find that the Baha'i scriptures still match extremely well, the more so given the many prophecies in both the Jewish and Christian scriptures that the Baha'i Faith fulfills! (There are web sites and other resources I can cite if you'd like to see more details about this.) In this respect, the many passages in the Baha'i scriptures that address the Bible are simply vast additional benefit--icing on the cake, of you like.

And I assure you that we Baha'is revere and respect the Bible far more than you realize!

Peace,

Bruce
You know, Bruce, that close does not mean you get the medal. Close to the minutest detail, but one thing wrong, and the promises of Christ will elude you.

BTW, I think you are a nice guy. Ask me how often I have said that to someone on forums.
 
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Arthra

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You make the same assumptions about Ishmael that muslims do and in doing so, you speak for muslims; therefore, Bahai means nothing to me. Ishmael in connection with muslims is islam tradition, not fact.

Luzeiro,

I don't speak for Muslims... I am a Baha'i not a Muslim. The Baha'i Faith may mean nothing to you but you'll note in my reply to you all I have been quoting are Bible verses.. Please be respectful of your own scripture and don't compare Ishmael with Santa Claus..

- Art:wave:
 
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Luzeiro

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Luzeiro,

I don't speak for Muslims... I am a Baha'i not a Muslim. The Baha'i Faith may mean nothing to you but you'll note in my reply to you all I have been quoting are Bible verses.. Please be respectful of your own scripture and don't compare Ishmael with Santa Claus..

- Art:wave:
Thank you. My scriptures say nothing about Ishmael being the father of arabs or islam.

Show me where I have compared Ishmael to Santa Claus.

Discussing Ishmael here is no different from discussing Santa Claus. Neither are in any way related to Islam. Ishmael is not your father, nor is Santa Claus.
 
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Arthra

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Thank you. My scriptures say nothing about Ishmael being the father of arabs or islam.

Show me where I have compared Ishmael to Santa Claus.


"Discussing Ishmael here is no different from discussing Santa Claus."
 
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Arthra

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LOL Ishmael as arab/muslim is as funny as Santa Claus as real. OK? OK!


Not really.. I'll explain why:

Ishmael and his Father Abraham submitted to God's will ... that being the case they were Muslims. If you submit to God's will you are a "Muslim" and follower of "Islam" because

(Arabic: &#1575;&#1604;&#1573;&#1587;&#1604;&#1575;&#1605; al-isl&#257;m) "obediance (or submission) to God" is a monotheistic faith, one of the Abrahamic religions, and the ...
www.newworldencyclopedia.org/entry/Islam

Of course we do not mean a sect but simply submission to God.

Jesus submitted to God's will.. "Let Thy will be done.." Jesus was ergo a Muslim.

And He went a little beyond them, and fell on His face and prayed, saying,

"My Father, if it is possible, let this cup pass from Me; yet not as I will, but as You will."

and


A Muslim (&#1605;&#1587;&#1604;&#1605;) is an adherent of the religion of Islam. The feminine form of 'Muslim' is Muslimah (&#1605;&#1587;&#1604;&#1605;&#1577;). Literally, the word means "one who submits to God". The word "Muslim" is the participle of the same verb of which "Islam" is the infinitive. ...
en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Muslim

I am also however a follower of Baha'u'llah, a Baha'i which means follower of the Light/Glory of God.

- Art
 
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peaceful soul

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Arthra

Not really.. I'll explain why:

Ishmael and his Father Abraham submitted to God's will ... that being the case they were Muslims.

That doesn't make them Muslims. They had no concept of Muslim.

If you submit to God's will you are a "Muslim" and follower of "Islam" because

They did not follow Islam. Islam was founded via Mohammad. Its tenets are based upon what Mohammad is said to have received from Allah via an angel.

(Arabic: &#1575;&#1604;&#1573;&#1587;&#1604;&#1575;&#1605; al-isl&#257;m) "obediance (or submission) to God" is a monotheistic faith, one of the Abrahamic religions, and the ...
www.newworldencyclopedia.org/entry/Islam

The original meaning of islam was submission. It did not have any relation to religion. Muslims adapted the word to denote submission to Allah.

Of course we do not mean a sect but simply submission to God.

This is a contradiction to what Islam means in terms of the followers of Mohammad understood. They associated Islam with following Mohammad. You could not be a Muslim without accepting Mohammad as a prophet and obeying what he told you. In that sense, it is a sect since these were the only people that are historically called Muslims. No Mohammad, no Islam. One who does not believe in Mohammad's prophethood can't be a Muslim; therefore, he can't be a part of the sect. It is possible for someone to submit to God without being a Muslim. Many other religions claim to submit to God, but you wouldn't call them Muslims. The definition is flawed.

If that is what you mean, then you can't change the definition of Muslim and then claim that it also means something else in relation to Islam. The antecedent to Islam is a prophet named Mohammad. Abraham and Ishmael did not have Mohammad as their antecedent; so, you can't claim that both of them were Muslims since they lived before Mohammad's time and had no concept of what a Muslim was. They did not pray to Allah and didn't pledge the Shahada. You can't redefine terms and then say that they are the same when used in different senses.

Jesus submitted to God's will.. "Let Thy will be done.." Jesus was ergo a Muslim.

And He went a little beyond them, and fell on His face and prayed, saying,

"My Father, if it is possible, let this cup pass from Me; yet not as I will, but as You will."

Jesus was a Muslim, by your definition?

Those statements represent a logical fallacy referred to as False Dilemma. It states that either you’re a Muslim, or you’re not submitted to God; but it doesn’t include other viable alternatives such as “Submitted to God, but NOT a Muslim”.

and


A Muslim (&#1605;&#1587;&#1604;&#1605;) is an adherent of the religion of Islam. The feminine form of 'Muslim' is Muslimah (&#1605;&#1587;&#1604;&#1605;&#1577;). Literally, the word means "one who submits to God". The word "Muslim" is the participle of the same verb of which "Islam" is the infinitive. ...
en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Muslim

Therefore, a Muslim cannot be an adherent of Islam and not Islam at the same time. This is faulty reasoning and inference. Many other people claim that they submit to God but are not Muslims. If I asked you if they were Muslims, you would say "no". Faulty definition.

I am also however a follower of Baha'u'llah, a Baha'i which means follower of the Light/Glory of God.

- Art

But you are a Muslim since you claim to submit to God. Why aren't you following Islam?
 
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Arthra

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"They associated Islam with following Mohammad"

This is one of the misunderstandings I believe that many Christians have..since they ostensibly follow Christ they believe Muslims must "follow" Muhammad and so the term "Muhammadan" developed.. that term is now antiquated and hardly used anymore but many Christians still believe it.


The follower of Light looks to the Light and not the particular frame of the mirror it appears in.

- Art:wave:
 
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Secundulus

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"They associated Islam with following Mohammad"

This is one of the misunderstandings I believe that many Christians have..since they ostensibly follow Christ they believe Muslims must "follow" Muhammad and so the term "Muhammadan" developed.. that term is now antiquated and hardly used anymore but many Christians still believe it.


The follower of Light looks to the Light and not the particular frame of the mirror it appears in.

- Art:wave:
To become a Nuslim it is a requirement to verbally testify that Muhammed is God's Prophet. It seems they are as interested in submission to Muhammed as much as submission to God. Let them drop that part of the Shahada and your premise would be valid.
 
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Arthra

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To become a Nuslim it is a requirement to verbally testify that Muhammed is God's Prophet. It seems they are as interested in submission to Muhammed as much as submission to God. Let them drop that part of the Shahada and your premise would be valid.

Well hello my friend!

I notice the old "us and them" concept in your writing.. that's sometimes unfortunate because it injects an adversarial quality into a situation that could be an opportunity for greater openness and learning

I was going to follow up my previous post with a tradition that I believe is probably authentic and it has to do with the very ideas we've been discussing... Do Muslims submit to Muhammad or Allah?

It was presented here by Marmaduke Pickthall one of the widely known translators of the Qur'an:

By Mohammed Marmaduke Pickthall
The Life of Prophet Muhammad
PART III
The Final Days


When, later in the day, the rumor grew that he was dead. Omar threatened those who spread the rumor with dire punishment, declaring it a crime to think that the Messenger of God could die. He was storming at the people in that strain when Abu Bakr came into the mosque and overheard him. Abu Bakr went to the chamber of his daughter Ayeshah, where the Prophet lay. Having ascertained the fact, and kissed the prophet's forehead, he went back into the mosque. The people were still listening to Omar, who was saying that the rumor was a wicked lie, that the Prophet who was all in all to them could not be dead. Abu Bakr went up to Omar and tried to stop him by a whispered word. Then, finding he would pay no heed, Abu Bakr called to the people, who, recognizing his voice, left Omar and came crowding round him. He first gave praise to Allah, and then said:

"O people! Lo! As for him who worshipped Muhammad, Muhammad is dead. But as for him who worships Allah, Allah is Alive and dieth not." He then recited the verse of the Qur'an:


(And Muhammad is but a messenger, messengers the like of whom have passed away before him. Will it be that, when he dieth or is slain, ye will turn back on your heels? He who turneth back doth no hurt to Allah, and Allah will reward the thankful.)- Surih 3:144


Something happens when a Messenger of God passes on to the spiritual world...some of the believers don't want to think that the Messenger can die and they've gotten in the habit of relying on Him and being attached to Him so much... The same can be said I believe for Jesus. Many of His followers wanted to believe He could not really physically die or be crucified.


- Art:wave:
 
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