It has nothing to do with bourgeois ideology or anything of the sort.
The 19th century was the century when the ideas of universal progress in human history became dominant (thanks to Hegel and some other philosophers). The most most primitive society was thought matriarchal (hence the myth of a matriarchal stone age society), and the patriarchate was seen the most progressive society model. Leftists have protested, and nowadays no-one would think of patriarchate as progressive.
Even before the 19th century, the role of women was more or more marginalized and confined to family. I lived in Cologne for some time, and I observed that the name of one
Gasse (small alley) was changed from »Unter Seidmachern« (»among
(lit.: under) silk producers«) to »Seidmacherinnengässchen« (»female silk producer alley«). For historical research revealed that all silk producer craftsmen were really women in the middle ages!
The idea that women should be ruled by their husbands and stay at home
is bourgeois - the only question is whether it was some idea taken from the bible (part of bourgeois thinking was taken from the Bible, thanks to Reformation).
... but to use such a submission to nullify or dissolve God's order is evil.
I'm still not convinced that what you say is really God's order and not an human order wrongly declared to be from God.
Men are to be men, and women are to be women.
Agree.
They each have their own designated role to fulfill, and man is unambiguously meant to be the leader and head.
No, this is not so. The NT draws a somewhat different picture. There is a female apostle (Junia, Rm 16:7), there are female prophets (Acts 21:9), we see a couple (the woman is mentioned first in every instance this couple is mentioned in the NT, so she was the spiritually leading person in that marriage) that teaches a well-know evangelist (Acts 18:26), and 1.Co 11:5 states that a woman can pray and prophesy (i.e.: tell the congregation what God wants for/from them), which sheds a light on 1.Co 14:34-5, which is often read as a ban on women speaking in church) …
It seems you have forgotten that I showed that »head« (
kephale)
does not imply leader in ancient Greek. When Jesus is called head, this can refer to Him being of eternal origin or firstborn of resurrection (head=first one in a row), or the
son of man, the judge in the last judgement (head=last in a row), or the one with the highest glory bestowed on Him (head=outstanding, more honor or worth than any other, this is always a connotation in the other meanings mentioned before). If you want to find a verse that tells he is leader, look for »lord« …
Generally speaking, to be ruled by women is a curse. (Isaiah 3:12)
Women ruled by men is the almost oldest curse (Gen 3:16). The verse is renders with »usurers rule over them» in the LXX, which seems to stem from a different Hebrew text. But this is not the main issue here: In that situation in ancient orient, women as rulers had a harder stand as men,so the lamentation about them is realistic, and should not be taken as an eternal rule or curse.
Generally speaking, the OT cannot overrule the NT. So I want NT proofs, not selected OT passages. In 2.Ki 22:13-20 a delegation from the king does not go to Jeremiah, but to a prophetess who tells them what God thinks about the king. You see, I can find and select fitting passages as you can …