This was a post from another sub-forum.
Is it accurate regarding Ryrie? I don't remember Ryrie teaching that salvation was from anything other than faith, former dispensation or present.
Is this accurate?
Is it accurate regarding Ryrie? I don't remember Ryrie teaching that salvation was from anything other than faith, former dispensation or present.
The sine qua non, according to Charles Ryrie, is three fold:
1) A dispensationalist keeps Israel and the church distinct.
2) This distinction is thought to be founded on a "literal" understanding of scripture (but this point is often disputed).
3) The underlying purpose of God in the world is found in His diverse programs of salvation in which He is glorified.
All three points are debated by theologians and recognized as a more modern invention. Ryrie concedes this point to a certain extend in his work, "Dispensationalism."
Is this accurate?