The AV 1611, an Anglican version, has them in a separate section between the OT & NT.
Quite correct. If some wish to consider them to be the inspired Word of God, that is their decision, right or wrong.
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The AV 1611, an Anglican version, has them in a separate section between the OT & NT.
You claim that Saint Jerome 1) "rejected" the deutercanonical books" and 2) was later "pressured" to translate those books. This time I ask that your provide documentation for your allegations.
Certainly. You can find the full context here - Jerome - Wikipedia
Particular pertinent aspects are as follow:
He is best known for his translation of most of the Bible into Latin (the translation that became known as the Vulgate) and his commentaries on the whole Bible. Jerome attempted to create a translation of the Old Testament based on a Hebrew version, rather than the Septuagint, as Latin Bible translations used to be performed before him. His list of writings is extensive, and beside his Biblical works, he wrote polemical and historical essays, always from a theologian's perspective.
Although Jerome was once suspicious of the Apocrypha, he later viewed them as Scripture. For example, in Jerome's letter to Eustochium he quotes Sirach 13:2;[25] elsewhere Jerome also refers to Baruch, the Story of Susannah and Wisdom as scripture.
The text that Jerome used to translate the Old Testament was the Hebrew text, which does not include the deutercanonical books. Although the Septuagint does include these books, he did not trust it. Therefore, he was suspicious of these books.
But Scripture plainly stated Mary had at least 6 more children. That's the bottom line.Your saying does not make it so.
πως εσται τουτο επει ανδρα ου γινωσκω
The verb ending of "ω" is the simple present, so just as "τρωω" can be written as "I eat" or I am eating", "γινωσκω" can be written as "I know" or "I am knowing". There is absolutely no past tense involved such as in the translation you gave.
No, it's not false. If it's offensive, I don't care; truth is TRUTH & I won't deny it to keep from offending someone.When you include the Anglican Communion, the Lutherans, the Oriental Orthodox and the Assyrians, and other churches which do not define the issue one way or the other, the figures become overwhelming.
But that aside, even if we were to omit the Lutherans, who have an open canon, which I think would be misleading because the Deuterocanonicals are not uncanonical in Lutheranism (regardless of what Martin Luther thought about them; Lutheranism is much more than Martin Luther and historically, most European Lutheran churches aren’t even officially called Lutheran, but rather have names like The Church of Sweden, the Church of Denmark, the Evangelical Church in Germany, and so on), the statement by @robycop3 that Christians do not accept the deuterocanonical books as scripture is false and offensive.
I have several current KJV copies as well as a repro AV 1611, & the Apocrypha are found ONLY in the 1611.They are still officially a part of the KJV, and its not a bible exclusive to Anglicanism, although it was originally translated for use in the Church of England to replace the Bishop’s Bible and the Geneva Bible and other earlier translations.
I only accept the 66 books of the Protestant canon.Hi there, I’m a Christian, and I accept the books you call Apocrypha. Specifically, I accept everything in the Narrow Canon of the Ethiopian Tewahedo Orthodox Church as inspired scripture.
There's absolutely NO EVIDENCE that Joe had a prior wife. And Scripture doesn't call them anything but Jesus' siblings. Not once is another mother even hinted at for them by the slightest implication, nor in any other known legitimate Jewish writings.There is no scriptural affirmation of that position. Joseph is the adoptive father of Jesus Christ, and so it is completely legitimate to believe, as did Luther, Calvin, Cranmer and Wesley, that His brothers were half-brothers by Joseph’s deceased prior wife, or cousins, and that Mary was, as John Wesley put it, “a pure and unspotted Virgin.”
She is also the Mother of God, because Jesus Christ is God incarnate.
She knew she was talking to an angel, not a man. And, as virgins didn't become pregnant, it was quite-natural for her to have asked."How can this be?" Such a young woman entering into a normal Jewish lifelong marriage would not ask such a question. The author felt it important enough to include instead of the many wonderous things Jesus did that are not included in the Bible.
There is nothing in Scripture to support your speculation--zero. Claiming that "brother" must indicate Mary had other children, despite so many Biblical uses of the word for cousins or for kin, is also pure speculation. It is your choice to believe or not believe writing from so long ago that Saint Joseph was a widower.There's absolutely NO EVIDENCE that Joe had a prior wife. And Scripture doesn't call them anything but Jesus' siblings. Not once is another mother even hinted at for them by the slightest implication, nor in any other known legitimate Jewish writings.
The doctrine "Mary was a perpetual virgin" is horse feathers.
I have several current KJV copies as well as a repro AV 1611, & the Apocrupha are found ONLY in the 1611.
It is not a secret--take the time to study for yourself text from the early centuries of Christianity.If there were any LEGITIMATE jewish writings saying Joe was a widower, the RCC would've been hawking it for hundreds of years. The "mary was a perpetual virgin" doctrine is false, as is the doctrine she was "assumed" into heaven.
Anglicans and Lutherans do not consider the Apocrypha to be Scripture (meaning inspired writings). That is the official position of those churches. Of course there's no telling what individual members believe about them, just as we could say about individual Catholics and Orthodox Christians, etc.Indeed so. Roman Catholics, Anglicans, Lutherans, Assyrians, Old Catholics, Oriental Orthodox, Eastern Orthodox, and the various Sui Juris Eastern Catholic Churches, represent a majority of Christendom. And these books are included in the KJV, because it was created for use by the Church of England; that most current editions of the KJV omit them started as a cost-savings exercise by printers in the 1800s.
I have, & all that pops up concerning the Mary=perpetual virgin theory is RC stuff.It is not a secret--take the time to study for yourself text from the early centuries of Christianity.
They do have some historical value.Anglicans and Lutherans do not consider the Apocrypha to be Scripture (meaning inspired writings). That is the official position of those churches. Of course there's no telling what individual members believe about them, just as we could say about individual Catholics and Orthodox Christians, etc.
These churches do consider them to be worth reading but not as revelation or as a basis for any doctrine.
Yes. They are basically morality tales and as the (Anglican) Articles of Religion put it, they are valuable to read for "example of life and instruction of manners" but not for establishing any doctrine.They do have some historical value.
They do have some historical value.
But they have goofs, such as the Book of Enoch referring to a 365 day year, when in Enoch's time it was only 360 days. Thus, that book was written after the 700s BC, the time cosmic catastrophe changed the year's length to its present value.
Anglicans and Lutherans do not consider the Apocrypha to be Scripture (meaning inspired writings). That is the official position of those churches. Of course there's no telling what individual members believe about them, just as we could say about individual Catholics and Orthodox Christians, etc.
These churches do consider them to be worth reading but not as revelation or as a basis for any doctrine.