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Is the old covenant in effect?
The real question in my mind is whether the law talked about in Jer 31 is the same law. The new covenant isn't totally in effect yet because it says in those days "no one shall teach his neighbor." However, there are plenty of verses in the new testament talking about it starting to go into effect or that there's a partial giving of the holy spirit which precedes the fullness of the new covenant 2 Corinthians 1:22, Ephesians 1:14Is the old covenant in effect?
The thing with the old covenant as revealed in the New Testament is that it was ineffective because it required a standard of righteous living that no one has attained to. The main use of the old covenant is to reveal people's sinful nature.Is the old covenant in effect?
The thing with the old covenant as revealed in the New Testament is that it was ineffective because it required a standard of righteous living that no one has attained to. The main use of the old covenant is to reveal people's sinful nature.
"Therefore no one will be declared righteous in his sight by observing the law; rather, through the law we become conscious of sin." Rom 3:20
Gal 3:10-12 "For as many as are of the works of the law are under the curse; for it is written, "Cursed is everyone who does not continue in all things which are written in the book of the law, to do them." But that no one is justified by the law in the sight of God is evident, for "the just shall live by faith."Yet the law is not of faith, but "the man who does them shall live by them."
I would have to suspect the old covenant is still in effect for the Jews, and much of its teachings apply to us.Is the old covenant in effect?
Yes and noIs the old covenant in effect?
It doesn't actually say covenant there. (it's an interpretation/interpolation by the translator in the English) I think the context comes from the later verses and the verses before he quotes Jer 31 (there were no chapter divisions originally) so I think it is talking about the temple and the priestly system (of the old covenant) which was about to be destroyed:Hebrews 8:13 states:...…….
“In that He says, ‘A new covenant,’ He HAS MADE the first OBSOLETE.”
In the next part of the sentence Paul explains what the word “obsolete” means:
“What is becoming obsolete and growing old is ready to vanish away.” But he does not say here that the “old” is BECOMING obsolete — rather, he just said that God “HAS MADE IT” already obsolete.
The Authorized Version translates this as “he hath made the first old.”
W.E. Vine explains that the Greek word for “old,” i.e. palaioo, means, “shall be made old” or “worn out” and may have the meaning of “to abrogate.”
http://www.eternalgod.org/question-and-answer-258/
Yes, for the Jews, until they accept Christ as MessiahIs the old covenant in effect?