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Is the Fall historical? A question for TE believers

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Didaskomenos

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TheBear said:
But what scripture indicates that Adam already consumed from the Tree of Life? Not one.

22 Then the Lord God said, "Behold, the man has become like one of Us, to know good and evil. And now, lest he put out his hand and take also of the tree of life, and eat, and live forever"-- 23 therefore the Lord God sent him out of the garden of Eden to till the ground from which he was taken. 24 So He drove out the man; and He placed cherubim at the east of the garden of Eden, and a flaming sword which turned every way, to guard the way to the tree of life.

I keep going back to this passage of Genesis. By any reasonable interpretation, Adam had not yet eaten from the Tree of Life, and therefore remained mortal.

The argument from silence? But that's why I think it makes more sense the other way. "...Lest he put out his hand and take also of the tree of life..." in my view simply refers to his ability to access the tree, not with some implied parenthetical "like he has yet to do". I think it makes more sense to assume that he and Eve had eaten of all the trees for which they were granted permission, which included the Tree of Life.
 
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Didaskomenos

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Critias said:
I wasn't seeking an apology, I was just trying to say that if you want to be heard, you might have a better chance at it if you didn't tell others what they believed.

Again, I am sorry that I kept trying to point this out.

No harm done. In fact, don't you know I'll be more aware of the potential for error next time! :) Now, where were we?
 
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TheBear

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Didaskomenos said:
The argument from silence? But that's why I think it makes more sense the other way. "...Lest he put out his hand and take also of the tree of life..." in my view simply refers to his ability to access the tree, not with some implied parenthetical "like he has yet to do". I think it makes more sense to assume that he and Eve had eaten of all the trees for which they were granted permission, which included the Tree of Life.

And from silence, you assume things that don't logically make sense, and don't square with what is written.
 
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TheBear

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So let's see.

God created Adam mortal, but changed His mind and decided to make him immortal by putting a tree of life in the garden. Eating from the tree of life only once, did not make Adam immortal. Adam had to continuously eat from the tree of life in order to "stay immortal". Then, God cut off Adam's access to the tree of life, so Adam became mortal....again.

And, none of this major process is recorded in scripture.



Is that about right?
 
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Marshall Janzen

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TheBear said:
I keep going back to this passage of Genesis. By any reasonable interpretation, Adam had not yet eaten from the Tree of Life, and therefore remained mortal.
That's my interpretation of it too. Adam was kicked out so he never had the chance to eat of the tree of life even once, because if he did, he would live forever. While it does not explicitly say that Adam did not eat of it before, it does explicitly say that if he did eat of it, he would live forever.

I do see how it could mean that if Adam continues to have access to the tree so he can eat of it continually, he could live forever, but I think that's a less likely interpretation.
 
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Didaskomenos

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TheBear said:
And from silence, you assume things that don't logically make sense, and don't square with what is written.
What is illogical here? And what exactly contradicts or otherwise doesn't "square" with what is written? These are strangely absent from your reply.

So let's see.

God created Adam mortal, but changed His mind and decided to make him immortal by putting a tree of life in the garden. Eating from the tree of life only once, did not make Adam immortal. Adam had to continuously eat from the tree of life in order to "stay immortal". Then, God cut off Adam's access to the tree of life, so Adam became mortal....again.
Who said God changed His mind? It was part of His plan. Besides, it's mythology for Pete's sake. Within that context, it makes complete sense.

And, none of this major process is recorded in scripture.
What I don't get is how your process is much different. God created Adam mortal, but then changed His mind and gave him a chance to eat from the Tree of Life. But because he was so busy naming the animals and doting on his wife and walking with God in the cool of the evenings and such, neither he not Eve ever got around to that one tree that would insure eternal life.

Is that really any better than my view?
 
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TheBear

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Didaskomenos said:
What is illogical here? And what exactly contradicts or otherwise doesn't "square" with what is written? These are strangely absent from your reply.


Who said God changed His mind? It was part of His plan. Besides, it's mythology for Pete's sake. Within that context, it makes complete sense.


What I don't get is how your process is much different. God created Adam mortal, but then changed His mind and gave him a chance to eat from the Tree of Life. But because he was so busy naming the animals and doting on his wife and walking with God in the cool of the evenings and such, neither he not Eve ever got around to that one tree that would insure eternal life.

Is that really any better than my view?

The illogical part does not necessarilly reflect your own reasoning, but that of those who think Adam was either created immortal, (and if that's the case, there's no need, function or purpose for a tree of life), or was created mortal but became immortal by eating from the tree of life, (but apparently had to continue to eat from the tree of life in order to remain immortal). It also assumes inconsistency in how both of these trees worked. One tree required eating from it only once to get the 'full effect' forever. The other tree required a 'daily dosage' or something.

That's a heck of a lot of assumptions that are not mentioned in any scripture, nor are these assumptions supported by any scripture.

Genesis 3 does not say that God "discontinued" Adam's eating from the tree of life.

Once more -

22 Then the Lord God said, "Behold, the man has become like one of Us, to know good and evil. And now, lest he put out his hand and take also of the tree of life, and eat, and live forever"-- 23 therefore the Lord God sent him out of the garden of Eden to till the ground from which he was taken. 24 So He drove out the man; and He placed cherubim at the east of the garden of Eden, and a flaming sword which turned every way, to guard the way to the tree of life. (Genesis 3:22-24)
 
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shernren

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Critias: as for Ecclesiates 12:7, here are some sites showing a holistic viewpoint:

http://www.bibleonly.org/docs/death/dualism.html
http://www.heavendwellers.com/hd_biblical_view_human_nature_1.htm
http://www.cresourcei.org/bodysoul.html

And one site showing a dualistic viewpoint (and a nasty nearly-useless Java applet :p)

http://allanturner.com/ten_1.html

I don't know if we can say for certain that there is a bodily interaction for those who denied Christ. Do you have specific verses you are refering to?

Revelations 21:8 But the cowardly, the unbelieving, the vile, the murderers, the sexually immoral, those who practice magic arts, the idolaters and all liars—their place will be in the fiery lake of burning sulfur. This is the second death.

It's just that I'm not imaginative enough to imagine what fire, sulfur, and a lake are, other than physical means of torture. Plus of course, if you take the Lazarus parable to be literal, we can see that the Rich Man expected to be able to alleviate his torture with water - physical redress for physical torture.

If you take a further look into Paul's teachings, you will see that he says if there is no resurrection, then we are all to be the most pitied. And he is referring to Christians only. This is more about saying that if there is no resurrection then Jesus didn't raise from the dead like He said He would. So there is meaning in the resurrection as well in His death.

But all will be resurrected from death - it is just a matter of what we will be resurrected into: eternal glory or eternal damnation? Did Jesus accomplish only the first, or the second? I feel that there are two possible ways of looking at it:

1. Maybe Paul was thinking of Jesus' work as a "second" resurrection and referring to it - as the first resurrection (of all) brings all back from the first death, the second resurrection which is our hope brings us who believe away from the second death. I admit that this is unlikely, but still possible.
2. I think Paul was referring to the certainty of resurrection - "If we don't know what happens after death, we are to be most pitied ... " The effect of the resurrection is a certainty that justice will be served beyond the grave, with a good helping of grace for those who believe. The resurrection of Jesus Himself affirms that there is an afterlife and that Jesus who has come back from it is qualified to tell us about it and to consign us to it. (Paul pursues the second theme in his speech to the Areopagus - that Jesus is God's Judge, and God verified it by raising Him from the dead.)

I don't agree with your belief/opinion that all will receive incorruptable and immortal bodies, whether they accept Jesus or not.

I think we're disagreeing on definitions here. To me, if the body lasts for eternity it's immortal, and if it can stand an eternity of abuse and torture it's most definitely "imperishable"! And I believe the "incorruptibility" is not referring so much to the substance of the bodies themselves but rather to the purpose to which the bodies will be used - our new bodies will be "incorruptible" because no corruption i.e. sin will be allowed into them.

Maybe the words mean different things to you? Though I won't try to presume exactly what. ;)

Anyway to bring things back to the topic of the OP :D thing is, we were arguing about the effect of the Fall upon man, and the role of Jesus' work in correcting it for believers only. So if the effect of the Fall was physical death, why is this effect corrected for all?
 
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shernren said:
Critias: as for Ecclesiates 12:7, here are some sites showing a holistic viewpoint:

http://www.bibleonly.org/docs/death/dualism.html
http://www.heavendwellers.com/hd_biblical_view_human_nature_1.htm
http://www.cresourcei.org/bodysoul.html

And one site showing a dualistic viewpoint (and a nasty nearly-useless Java applet :p)

http://allanturner.com/ten_1.html

Thank you. I will take a look at them.

shernren said:
Revelations 21:8 But the cowardly, the unbelieving, the vile, the murderers, the sexually immoral, those who practice magic arts, the idolaters and all liars—their place will be in the fiery lake of burning sulfur. This is the second death.

It's just that I'm not imaginative enough to imagine what fire, sulfur, and a lake are, other than physical means of torture. Plus of course, if you take the Lazarus parable to be literal, we can see that the Rich Man expected to be able to alleviate his torture with water - physical redress for physical torture.

It is quite possible that this is imagery to show what it will be like to be without God. God created the Lake of Fire as a place for the devil and his angels, a place where God has chosen to not be. So, I could imagine that in a place where God is not, would be absolutely horrible. Look at our world today, all the murder, rapes, molestations, sexual perversions, etc and God is still here.

A life without Him would be unbearable.

shernren said:
But all will be resurrected from death - it is just a matter of what we will be resurrected into: eternal glory or eternal damnation? Did Jesus accomplish only the first, or the second? I feel that there are two possible ways of looking at it:

I wasn't stating that only certain people will be resurrected but that the believers will receive a different body than non-believers. There is a first and second resurrection. Paul is talking about the first resurrection and that first resurrection is of believers, not unbelievers. So it would be a misinterpretation to say that it is all people, believers and unbelievers alike.

shernren said:
1. Maybe Paul was thinking of Jesus' work as a "second" resurrection and referring to it - as the first resurrection (of all) brings all back from the first death, the second resurrection which is our hope brings us who believe away from the second death. I admit that this is unlikely, but still possible.

Remember there are two resurrections that will take place, one of believers and then one of non-believers. The Bible does not talk about what bodies, if any the non-believers will receive. We assume they will receive bodies, but they could just be a gathering of souls. The point is we don't know. We do know what bodies believers will receive.

shernren said:
2. I think Paul was referring to the certainty of resurrection - "If we don't know what happens after death, we are to be most pitied ... " The effect of the resurrection is a certainty that justice will be served beyond the grave, with a good helping of grace for those who believe. The resurrection of Jesus Himself affirms that there is an afterlife and that Jesus who has come back from it is qualified to tell us about it and to consign us to it. (Paul pursues the second theme in his speech to the Areopagus - that Jesus is God's Judge, and God verified it by raising Him from the dead.)

I agree that Paul is mostly referring to the certainty of the resurrection. Many Corinthians were doubting and not believing there would be resurrection and Paul was correcting them. I don't agree that if don't know what happens after death then we are the most pitied. I believe Paul was stating this about Jesus, not us. That if He was not resurrected, then we are to be the most pitied because then Jesus didn't do what He said He would do. That would make Him a liar, and a false prophet.

shernren said:
I think we're disagreeing on definitions here. To me, if the body lasts for eternity it's immortal, and if it can stand an eternity of abuse and torture it's most definitely "imperishable"! And I believe the "incorruptibility" is not referring so much to the substance of the bodies themselves but rather to the purpose to which the bodies will be used - our new bodies will be "incorruptible" because no corruption i.e. sin will be allowed into them.

The Bible does not say whether non-believers will receive an immortal body or not. Imperishable just means immortal. So whether the unbelievers receive a body that lives forever, or they don't, the Bible does not say.

Incorrupt is to be without sin. I don't believe that the unbelievers will receive a body that is without sin.

Paul speaks of both, immortal and incorruptable, as what the believers will receive together in one body, the spiritual body that all believers will receive. Paul makes this point in 1 Corinthians connecting it with Jesus Christ and saying because of Christ we receive this.

This leads me to the conclusion that the people who rejected Christ won't receive Christ's gift because they don't want it.

shernren said:
Maybe the words mean different things to you? Though I won't try to presume exactly what. ;)

Anyway to bring things back to the topic of the OP :D thing is, we were arguing about the effect of the Fall upon man, and the role of Jesus' work in correcting it for believers only. So if the effect of the Fall was physical death, why is this effect corrected for all?

I appreciate not taking the road to tell me what I think. It is a horrible tactic that just turns off the person you are speaking to. Thus, you will never be able to persuade them of anything, let alone even plant a seed.

Where does the Bible state that non-believers receive what believers receive as far as the physical goes? The Bible doesn't say, it is your assumption that thinks this.

One thing you can do is look to see what believers receive because they believed and you can know that non-believers most likely won't receive this because they rejected Christ. Unless of course you are a universalist? ;)

But let me ask, if Adam and Eve stayed in the Garden - whether they were created immortal or mortal - would they have lived forever with eating the Tree of Life? The Bible says they would have, and that is the reason they couldn't go into the Garden after sinning.

So, the question is, is physical death part of their punishment for sin? They were barred from eating of the Tree of Life after all which the Bible says would have allowed them to live forever. So, are they now subjected to physical death?
 
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TheBear

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Critias said:
But let me ask, if Adam and Eve stayed in the Garden - whether they were created immortal or mortal - would they have lived forever with eating the Tree of Life? The Bible says they would have, and that is the reason they couldn't go into the Garden after sinning.

So, the question is, is physical death part of their punishment for sin? They were barred from eating of the Tree of Life after all which the Bible says would have allowed them to live forever. So, are they now subjected to physical death?

What exactly was it, that would have kept them alive forever? Was it merely having access to the tree of life? Was it actually eating from the tree of life? Was it just being in the garden?

What exactly was it, that made Adam immortal before he sinned?
 
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TheBear said:
What exactly was it that would have kept them alive forever? Was it merely having access to the tree of life? Was it actually eating from the tree of life? Was it just being in the garden?

What exactly was it, that made Adam immortal before he sinned?

It was obviously God who gives eternal life of the body and soul.

They were banned from the Garden so they wouldn't live forever. This is in connection to God saying they will return to the dust from which Adam was made. As well as to what God said for in the day you shall die. The meaning of die is physical death, it's definition of the Hebrew doesn't even hint at spiritual death.

What is interesting is that "in they day" cannot be taken as figurative, but "die" which only means physical death can be.

But, the point is, if the Tree of Life was to allow Adam and Eve to live forever and they were banned from being able to have access to it, does this not mean that they will no longer be able to live forever? That itself suggests physical death is part of the punishment for their sin.
 
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TheBear

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Critias said:
But, the point is, if the Tree of Life was to allow Adam and Eve to live forever and they were banned from being able to have access to it, does this not mean that they will no longer be able to live forever? That itself suggests physical death is part of the punishment for their sin.

Did they ever eat from the Tree of Life?
 
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TheBear said:
Did they ever eat from the Tree of Life?

The Bible doesn't say if they did or didn't.

So, since I have answered your question after I asked mine of you, can you now answer my original question?

"But, the point is, if the Tree of Life was to allow Adam and Eve to live forever and they were banned from being able to have access to it, does this not mean that they will no longer be able to live forever? That itself suggests physical death is part of the punishment for their sin."
 
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shernren

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Critias said:
Where does the Bible state that non-believers receive what believers receive as far as the physical goes? The Bible doesn't say, it is your assumption that thinks this.

One thing you can do is look to see what believers receive because they believed and you can know that non-believers most likely won't receive this because they rejected Christ. Unless of course you are a universalist? ;)

See, I don't think we're seeing eye to eye here :p To me it's something like this: on earth, how do you tell a Christian from a non-Christian? Externally they are identical - same DNA, same anatomy, same metabolism. Both Christians and non-Christians fall in love, marry, get angry, go to war, die. The difference is on the inside. It is not something we can quantify physically. I have a gut feeling that it will be the same in the afterlife. (By the way, because of that interpretation I have, the Bible does sound as if I'm right, to me. If you agreed with me - seeing as you don't - you would also agree that the Biblical evidence "points" that way.)

In other words: how is a resurrected Christian different from a resurrected non-Christian? Only their locations are different to me. The Christian resides in the new heavens and the new earth: because God allows no corruption there, the believer's body is thus incorruptible. The non-Christian resides in hell: because hell is the one place God refuses to be present, it is a death to them even while they are "alive" in the sense of being sentient and self-aware.

Yeah I'm "universalist", in the sense that I believe that the bodily resurrection will be universal. But though our bodies may be the same, our destinies will be different ...

Critias said:
The Bible does not say whether non-believers will receive an immortal body or not. Imperishable just means immortal. So whether the unbelievers receive a body that lives forever, or they don't, the Bible does not say.

Incorrupt is to be without sin. I don't believe that the unbelievers will receive a body that is without sin.

I believe that if unbelievers do receive a body it would have to be immortal. Simply because it goes through hell and still doesn't die. Like I explained, I also believe that the unbeliever's body will be immortal and yet corrupt, not because it is different in nature from the believer's body but different in destiny and location.

Critias said:
Paul speaks of both, immortal and incorruptable, as what the believers will receive together in one body, the spiritual body that all believers will receive. Paul makes this point in 1 Corinthians connecting it with Jesus Christ and saying because of Christ we receive this.

This leads me to the conclusion that the people who rejected Christ won't receive Christ's gift because they don't want it.

Maybe unbelievers receive bodies that are immortal, but not incorruptible.

Critias said:
Remember there are two resurrections that will take place, one of believers and then one of non-believers. The Bible does not talk about what bodies, if any the non-believers will receive. We assume they will receive bodies, but they could just be a gathering of souls. The point is we don't know. We do know what bodies believers will receive.

I agree that it seems that there will be two chronologically distinct resurrections - in other words, not everybody will be resurrected at once, but some will be resurrected first and some later. But I don't think that the resurrections will be any different in terms of what the people are resurrected into.

And I don't think the unbelievers will be just "a gathering of souls" for the simple reason that the "soul" does not exist or have meaning independently from the body or from the rest of the person. I would probably need another thread just to explain these holism ideas fully. But some people believe that when Satan said to Eve "You shall not die", he was actually sowing the idea of the immortal soul! That would mean that the idea of the immortal soul is no less than the first lie of the devil...

Critias said:
I wasn't stating that only certain people will be resurrected but that the believers will receive a different body than non-believers. There is a first and second resurrection. Paul is talking about the first resurrection and that first resurrection is of believers, not unbelievers. So it would be a misinterpretation to say that it is all people, believers and unbelievers alike.

Hmm, I think you're right about that "the dead will be resurrected" thing. My interpretation of that particular clause was wrong.

Critias said:
But let me ask, if Adam and Eve stayed in the Garden - whether they were created immortal or mortal - would they have lived forever with eating the Tree of Life? The Bible says they would have, and that is the reason they couldn't go into the Garden after sinning.

So, the question is, is physical death part of their punishment for sin? They were barred from eating of the Tree of Life after all which the Bible says would have allowed them to live forever. So, are they now subjected to physical death?

In the first place I'm not very convinced that this Tree of Life was the fruity equivalent of an immortality potion - which is how it is often treated in contemporary thought. What does it mean to say things like "the fruit of the Tree of Life gave / would have given Adam immortality"? And why was God concerned about Adam being immortally wicked, if He was going to do that very thing to the wicked who will burn in hell?? So the Tree of Life must have served more than just keeping Adam alive.

Another objection - if the physical resurrection is Jesus' work on the cross, what of those whom Paul speaks of who are alive when He returns? Doesn't that mean that Jesus' work doesn't apply to them - since if they never physically died, they need never be physically resurrected? It should be clear that Jesus' work of undoing the fall is much more complex than "and they lived forever after" - and by analogy, the fall itself was much more complex than "and they started dropping dead".
 
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shernren said:
See, I don't think we're seeing eye to eye here :p To me it's something like this: on earth, how do you tell a Christian from a non-Christian? Externally they are identical - same DNA, same anatomy, same metabolism. Both Christians and non-Christians fall in love, marry, get angry, go to war, die. The difference is on the inside. It is not something we can quantify physically. I have a gut feeling that it will be the same in the afterlife. (By the way, because of that interpretation I have, the Bible does sound as if I'm right, to me. If you agreed with me - seeing as you don't - you would also agree that the Biblical evidence "points" that way.)

In other words: how is a resurrected Christian different from a resurrected non-Christian? Only their locations are different to me. The Christian resides in the new heavens and the new earth: because God allows no corruption there, the believer's body is thus incorruptible. The non-Christian resides in hell: because hell is the one place God refuses to be present, it is a death to them even while they are "alive" in the sense of being sentient and self-aware.

I am curious, what verses are you using that says unbelievers will have the same type of body that believers will have? I know you have presented 1 Corinthians as one of your verses, but I assume you are aware that Paul was writing to a Church. The key word, Church, which is where believers are. He wasn't speaking to unbelievers. He was also refering to those in Christ. Are all people, whether saved or not referred to as "in Christ"?

shernren said:
Yeah I'm "universalist", in the sense that I believe that the bodily resurrection will be universal. But though our bodies may be the same, our destinies will be different ...



I believe that if unbelievers do receive a body it would have to be immortal. Simply because it goes through hell and still doesn't die. Like I explained, I also believe that the unbeliever's body will be immortal and yet corrupt, not because it is different in nature from the believer's body but different in destiny and location.

Is this your belief or do you have Scripture that says this about "unbelievers"?

shernren said:
Maybe unbelievers receive bodies that are immortal, but not incorruptible.



I agree that it seems that there will be two chronologically distinct resurrections - in other words, not everybody will be resurrected at once, but some will be resurrected first and some later. But I don't think that the resurrections will be any different in terms of what the people are resurrected into.

And I don't think the unbelievers will be just "a gathering of souls" for the simple reason that the "soul" does not exist or have meaning independently from the body or from the rest of the person. I would probably need another thread just to explain these holism ideas fully. But some people believe that when Satan said to Eve "You shall not die", he was actually sowing the idea of the immortal soul! That would mean that the idea of the immortal soul is no less than the first lie of the devil...

When Christ was on the Cross, He said to the theif "today you shall be with me in paradise." Luke 23:43. Well that day, his bodied died, meaning his soul was separated from his body. Was Christ correct in what He said that the theif would be with Him today in paradise or not? Was his body there or just his soul?

What about all the passages that talk about the believers in heaven; have they received their bodies already or does that happen at the resurrection?

What about the passage of when the body dies the soul returns to God? Does it or are you still convince there is no soul outside of the body?

shernren said:
Hmm, I think you're right about that "the dead will be resurrected" thing. My interpretation of that particular clause was wrong.



In the first place I'm not very convinced that this Tree of Life was the fruity equivalent of an immortality potion - which is how it is often treated in contemporary thought. What does it mean to say things like "the fruit of the Tree of Life gave / would have given Adam immortality"? And why was God concerned about Adam being immortally wicked, if He was going to do that very thing to the wicked who will burn in hell?? So the Tree of Life must have served more than just keeping Adam alive.


If the Tree of Life did give eternal life, it would be because God ordained it to be. So the true source would still be God Himself.

I don't think it was God being concerned about Adam being mortally wicked, but rather God being Just because of Adam's sin.

shernren said:
Another objection - if the physical resurrection is Jesus' work on the cross, what of those whom Paul speaks of who are alive when He returns? Doesn't that mean that Jesus' work doesn't apply to them - since if they never physically died, they need never be physically resurrected? It should be clear that Jesus' work of undoing the fall is much more complex than "and they lived forever after" - and by analogy, the fall itself was much more complex than "and they started dropping dead".

First off, I never said Jesus' work on the Cross was for the physical resurrection. The work on the Cross was for the washing of our sins. The work at the resurrection was two fold, Jesus doing what HE said He would do, and Jesus defeating death once and for all so that we too may be resurrected when we are in Him. When He was resurrected, He received His spiritual body, showing that we too who are in Him will also receive this spiritual body. Paul tells us what this spiritual body is like in 1 Corinthians 15. He is speaking about those in Christ. Shall those who are not in Christ, who don't want Christ, receive Christ's gift anyways? Will Jesus impose His gift on them when they have rejected Him?

The fall is about disobedience; not obeying God and the consequences of not obeying HIm. It is that simple, yet the consequences are that complex. It isn't just spiritual death at the fall, for spiritual death is sin. They were also kept from having eternal physical life when kicked out of the Garden.

The question is, do you see that as physical death being part of their punishment; no being able to eat from the Tree of Life to live forever?
 
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TheBear

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Critias said:
The Bible doesn't say if they did or didn't.

So, regarding the very foundation of the doctrine of the Fall, scripture says nothing. What other doctrines are out there, where the foundation is not based in scripture?
 
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TheBear

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Critias said:
Whether Adam and Eve ate of the Tree of Life before they sinned is not the foundation of the Fall. Why do you think it is?

Take the Tree of Life out of the immortality equation, and Genesis 3:22-24 becomes pointless.

22 Then the Lord God said, "Behold, the man has become like one of Us, to know good and evil. And now, lest he put out his hand and take also of the tree of life, and eat, and live forever"-- 23 therefore the Lord God sent him out of the garden of Eden to till the ground from which he was taken. 24 So He drove out the man; and He placed cherubim at the east of the garden of Eden, and a flaming sword which turned every way, to guard the way to the tree of life.
 
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TheBear

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Critias said:
I believe the foundation of the fall was the fact that man sinned against God.

Agreed. :)

The very moment Adam sinned against God, his fellowship with God ended....on the spot, right then and there...it was the great falling out of communion and fellowship with God. It was 'in the day' alright. It was - RIGHT NOW!, 'in the day'.

Adam and Eve not being able to eat of the Tree of Life was a consequence of their sin, not the foundation of the fall.

Not quite. :p

I'm talking about 'pre-Fall' Adam and Eve. I'm talking about the logical fallacies, and a large part of fill-in-the-blanks associated with the concept of no physical death occured before Adam sinned against God. This does go to the very foundation of the doctrine of the Fall.

We all agree there's not one scripture which states, or even implies that Adam and Eve ever once actually ate from the Tree of Life.

(pfffft!! Scripture is also 'silent' on Adam driving a 4WD vehicle across the vast land, in order to see and name all the animals. :D) :p (j/k) a little banter. ;)


So, since scripture says nothing on that, what is your own conclusion, and how did you arrive at that conclusion?

Let's follow the logic and reasoning on this. :)
 
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