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mysterious_w
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I'm just wondering if you consider the Bible to be the literal word of God. If you do consider your Bible to be faultless in that way, could you please tell me which Bible you use (King James etc.)?
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By Literal word of God, do you mean "Jesus written on paper?" or God's written word? I consider the Bible to be faultless because God directed the writters on what to write. And since God is all powerful and all knowing etc. If it came out of his, then no doubt it's faultless.I'm just wondering if you consider the Bible to be the literal word of God. If you do consider your Bible to be faultless in that way, could you please tell me which Bible you use (King James etc.)?
I'm asking because a major part of the Christian faith is the idea that no man is without sin, right?
Now, your bible for example, the NLT. The new testament in the NLT is translated from the Novum Testamentum Graece in Greek, and researching the NTG, I cannot tell if it is in the original language that the Apostles wrote in (As in, I don't know if the NTG is in modern Greek or Koine Greek).
So the bible was translated at least once (quite possibly more), by sinful men. How can a man with sin translate the literal word of god, and have every verse keep the same meaning? If he can't, how can you trust your bible to be the true word of God?
I'm just wondering if you consider the Bible to be the literal word of God.
"All Scripture is God-breathed and is useful for teaching, rebuking, correcting and training in righteousness,"- 2 Timothy 3:16
By studying to see what is of God, what has been recorded of manmade laws, and where satan is extending influence is all part of rightly dividing the Word.Study to shew thyself approved unto God, a workman that needeth not to be ashamed, rightly dividing the word of truth.
2 Corinthians 2:15
I'm just wondering if you consider the Bible to be the literal word of God. If you do consider your Bible to be faultless in that way, could you please tell me which Bible you use (King James etc.)?
All reputable modern translations refer back to the original Koine Greek.I'm asking because a major part of the Christian faith is the idea that no man is without sin, right?
Now, your bible for example, the NLT. The new testament in the NLT is translated from the Novum Testamentum Graece in Greek, and researching the NTG, I cannot tell if it is in the original language that the Apostles wrote in (As in, I don't know if the NTG is in modern Greek or Koine Greek).
Translation is inherently as much art as science. You cannot preserve perfectly every nuance in meaning as you go from one language to another. Nevertheless modern translations do a very good job - as can be seen by comparing different ones. Where there are substantive differences it's worth trying to get ones head around the greek that leads to that. The processes and thinking of modern translation teams, and the tools available to students now makes the whole thing very transparent.So the bible was translated at least once (quite possibly more), by sinful men. How can a man with sin translate the literal word of god, and have every verse keep the same meaning?
God doesn't need it to be perfect - that would be a waste of time anyway since we can never understand it perfectly. We need it only to be very good, which it is.If he can't, how can you trust your bible to be the true word of God?
If he can't, how can you trust your bible to be the true word of God?
MY SISTER,I'm just wondering if you consider the Bible to be the literal word of God. If you do consider your Bible to be faultless in that way, could you please tell me which Bible you use (King James etc.)?
you're not sure what the Apostles wrote it in, it was written in Greek.
When we translate the Bible, we do not translate from a translation of a translation of a translation. We translate from the original language into our language. It is a one step process and not a series of steps that can lead to corruption. It is one translation step from the original to the English or to whatever language a person needs to read it in. So we translate into Spanish from the same Greek and Hebrew manuscripts. Likewise we translate into the German from those same Greek and Hebrew manuscripts as well. This is how it is done for each and every language we translate the Bible into. We do not translate from the original languages to the English, to the Spanish, and then to the German. It is from the original languages to the English, or into the Spanish, or into the German. Therefore, the translations are very accurate and trustworthy in regards to what the Bible originally said.
Eh? What claim are you disputing. You are correct to say that we don't have the original manuscripts of any of the books (though we have some very early fragments of some), but no-one serious disputes that the New Testament books were written originally in Greek with the possible exception of Matthew, which some traditions have thought written in Aramaic or Hebrew originally.So where are those original manuscripts??
As far as I know no one has ever found them.
And Bart D Ehrman and Dr Bob Price may disagree your theory.
State some sources for your claim or it will not be taken seriously.