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So clearly unclean is NOT the same as SINFUL.
I'm curious what your own theory of ritual impurity is?Now you need to look deeper to see why an activity made a person unclean and you might learn how God sees that activity.
I have said the same. Nocturnal emission was involuntary so it was not sinful but it made the man unclean.
Now you need to look deeper to see why an activity made a person unclean and you might learn how God sees that activity.
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I'm curious what your own theory of ritual impurity is?
Only be sure your deeper look includes the unclean act of giving birth and the unclean act of burying the dead and the unclean act of unknowingly touched a dead body.
I don't agree with you, but I still find your reasoning very interesting.Everything God does has a meaning. For example, circumcision was an act of obedience but why that particular act. I believe it goes back to original sin. When Adam & Eve realized they had done wrong, they made aprons to cover their genitals. And part of the curse of sin was the pain of childbirth.
Uncleaness (or ritual impurity) was caused by sex. Through sin, sex had become a source of death (evey child born would die) but God condoned sex between a husband & wife to populate the earth. So on one hand sex that God has condoned is a beautiful thing, but sex God has not condoned is sinful.
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Really? Most cases of tamay, or ritual uncleanness, had nothing to do with sex. Most cases were from running (infected) sores, mold issues and proximity to a dead body.Uncleaness (or ritual impurity) was caused by sex.
Really? Most cases of tamay, or ritual uncleanness, had nothing to do with sex. Most cases were from running (infected) sores, mold issues and proximity to a dead body.
No you did not. You said: "Uncleaness (or ritual impurity) was caused by sex." PERIOD.Did I say "only" by sex ... or even mostly by sex?
No. Uncleanness had little to do with hygene in many of the cases.Are you arguing that is was only a matter of hygiene?
Such a thing need not "to be taught" as though a person isn't capable of utilizing such a release without running to some teacher. God is my teacher. I am confident HE doesn't consider masturbation a sin in the least. And that is all that is important. What He says or doesn't say is the only Word to hear. Not a man's ideas about it.
(Rom 3:4) God forbid: yea, let God be true, but every man a liar; as it is written, That thou mightest be justified in thy sayings, and mightest overcome when thou art judged.
The scriptures doesn't mention it nor does it mention any details what allowed in marriage. In marriage, which is a love relationship, you should ask your spouse what they are comfortable with. It's totally between you and your spouse and no one else. Without a spouse it's totally between you and God. No one can answer that for you.
The problem is NOT that I, or anybody else, hasn't defined "uncleanness". The problem is that you have declared yourself the authority of what it DOES mean. And you have NOT offered any justification whatsoever for your definition. You claim it means what you say it means and your only justification you have offered is "what else could it mean?". There is no Scriptural basis for your definition, only your own thoughts on the matter. ANY argument based on a non-existent thing is inherently riddled with human reasoning, not apologetics.
Why?Ritual uncleanness often had to do with contact with vital fluids. That is one reason the ingesting of blood was prohibited, even from a kosher animal.
It is a matter of authority. And you have that exact same authority over him.Why should my husband have any control over what I do with my body if it doesn't affect him?
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