Is Jesus ever called "Almighty" in the Scriptures, or is only the Father called such?

[Mark Quayle]

I edited the OP to clarify that I'm mainly wondering if there are some terms that are only used of one of the Persons of the Godhead in general, and if the term "Almighty" is used exclusively of the Father in particular.

So far, it appears that the main verses people cite for the term "Almighty" being applied to Jesus are Isaiah 9:6 and Revelation 1:8. Regarding Isaiah 9:6, the term isn't "Almighty" but "Mighty." So Revelation 1:8 appears to be the more relevant verse. However, as @hedrick points out, some see the speaker being the Father while others see the speaker being the Son. How might we determine the true speaker in Revelation 1:8? Thanks!

Regarding Isaiah 9:6 "mighty God" is no different from Almighty God, since God is necessarily Omnipotent, which fact Isaiah (not to mention God himself, the author of the Bible) was more than familiar with. The Messiah is not just some mere mighty god, in this prophecy.

 

[Kilk1]

Exodus 6
2 God also told Moses, “I am the LORD. 3 I appeared to Abraham, to Isaac, and to Jacob as God Almighty, but by My name the LORD I did not make Myself known to them.

I might know what your argument is here, but to make sure I understand, can you elaborate on how Exodus 6:2-3 shows that Jesus is called "Almighty"? Thanks.

 

[Kilk1]

What do you believe the word "almighty" actually means?

That's a good question. According to HELPS Word-studies, it refers to "unrestricted power exercising absolute dominion." Hmm... It's clear that Jesus has been given all authority on heaven and on earth (Matthew 28:18). That said, 1 Corinthians 15:27 appears to reference the Father as an exception. Similarly, 1 Corinthians 11:3 says that the Father is the head of Christ.

With this in mind, if the Father is at the top of the hierarchy, with Jesus second (but still fully God), could it be that the term "Almighty" is reserved for the top of the hierarchy, namely, the Father? (Again, Jesus has the full nature of Deity, Colossians 2:9, but there seems to be a sense in which the Father is over Him despite both having the same nature of being God.)

 

[RDKirk]

That's a good question. According to HELPS Word-studies, it refers to "unrestricted power exercising absolute dominion." Hmm... It's clear that Jesus has been given all authority on heaven and on earth (Matthew 28:18). That said, 1 Corinthians 15:27 appears to reference the Father as an exception. Similarly, 1 Corinthians 11:3 says that the Father is the head of Christ.

With this in mind, if the Father is at the top of the hierarchy, with Jesus second (but still fully God), could it be that the term "Almighty" is reserved for the top of the hierarchy, namely, the Father? (Again, Jesus has the full nature of Deity, Colossians 2:9, but there seems to be a sense in which the Father is over Him despite both having the same nature of being God.)

But does "head" as used by Paul really imply a hierarchy, or does it imply a more conjoined relationship...that in a direct sense, the Father is actually the head of Christ, forming an inseverable relationship as a single substance rather than two individuals in a hierarchical relationship.

 

[BeyondET]

I might know what your argument is here, but to make sure I understand, can you elaborate on how Exodus 6:2-3 shows that Jesus is called "Almighty"? Thanks.

Jesus name is also the Lord? was he almighty or partly mighty

 

[hedrick]

How might we determine the true speaker in Revelation 1:8? Thanks!

The NT tends to use God for the Father. Paul, for example, normally distinguishes God and the Lord. The Revelation also follows this pattern, using phrases like God and his Messiah.

1:4 and 1;9 talk about the Word of God and the testimony of Jesus. 1:6 talks about “his [Jesus’] God and Father.”

So generally unless something in the context suggests otherwise, I’d take a reference to Almighty God to mean the Father

 

[Mark Quayle]

The NT tends to use God for the Father. Paul, for example, normally distinguishes God and the Lord. The Revelation also follows this pattern, using phrases like God and his Messiah.

1:4 and 1;9 talk about the Word of God and the testimony of Jesus. 1:6 talks about “his [Jesus’] God and Father.”

So generally unless something in the context suggests otherwise, I’d take a reference to Almighty God to mean the Father

Just a side note: Even in English, and many, maybe most, other languages, and certainly in Greek, to say, "God and the Son of God" can mean "God, even the Son of God". In English we talk that way more often than most people realize.

 

[Kilk1]

Jesus name is also the Lord? was he almighty or partly mighty

If we can prove conclusively that the one speaking in Exodus 6:2-3 is Jesus talking about Himself, that would settle the matter. How do we know it's Jesus?

 

[Kilk1]

But does "head" as used by Paul really imply a hierarchy, or does it imply a more conjoined relationship...that in a direct sense, the Father is actually the head of Christ, forming an inseverable relationship as a single substance rather than two individuals in a hierarchical relationship.

It seems to imply hierarchy. There seems to be a difference between head and body. For example, Paul doesn't say that Christ is the head of God or that man is the head of Christ. Instead, God is the head of Christ, who is the head of man, etc. I'd be open to hearing an alternative interpretation, though.

Should I be mistaken on one of the two passages I cited, 1 Corinthians 11:3, there's still the other passage I cited, 1 Corinthians 15:27.

 

[BeyondET]

If we can prove conclusively that the one speaking in Exodus 6:2-3 is Jesus talking about Himself, that would settle the matter. How do we know it's Jesus?

you have a point and its probably going to take faith to believe. as a lot of things in the bible even the book itself