Is it wrong for a Christian man to marry more than one women ?

[QuestionQuest74]

It’s not talked about as sin in the New Testament and a variety types different type of sins are discussed.

 

[dwb001]

When Jesus was teaching about divorce... did He ever use the plural of wife?

"If a man wishes to divorce one of his wives..." Nah... that doesn't sound right... does it?

And there is the if a divorced person remarries... it is adultery bit.

Sounds like it is one for life... but there is still forgiveness for even the sin of adultery.
Divorced Christians are very much Christian... but it is by no means ideal or to be desired.

 

[trophy33]

It’s not talked about as sin in the New Testament and a variety types different type of sins are discussed.

It is talked about as sin:
“Anyone who divorces his wife and marries another woman commits adultery, and the man who marries a divorced woman commits adultery."
Lk 16:18

If a man could have two wives, this verse would not make any sense. Anyway, you do not want two wives, even one is a lot to deal with. And even one good one is almost impossible to find.

 

[dwb001]

... Anyway, trust me, you do not want two wives, even one is a lot to deal with.

AMEN!!!!!
Had mine for 30+ years and I still don't understand the operating manual.

 

[ViaCrucis]

It’s not talked about as sin in the New Testament and a variety types different type of sins are discussed.

In St. Paul's Pastoral Epistles he gives instruction on what sorts of people can be ordained to the sacred ministry, basically these should be people of integrity. One of the qualifications (see 1 Timothy 3:2) is he be a "one wife man" (Greek: μιᾶς γυναικὸς ἄνδρα).

The Church has never understood this to mean that ministers must be married, celibacy is celebrated in the New Testament and St. Paul was himself celibate, and the Church from ancient times ordained both married and celibates.

Some debate remains on what "one wife man" means, some have argued that it means a candidate for ordination shouldn't have divorced and remarried.

I'd argue, at the very least, it speaks to the fact that a moral qualification for ordination to the sacred ministry is monogamy. While polygamy was illegal in the Roman Empire, and so this wasn't likely to be as much of an issue, it certainly would address other potential situations. We see, for example, later ecclesiastical disciplines put in place such as that clergy shouldn't even live with a woman or have a woman live with them that isn't their spouse or relative.

That is to say, a moral qualification for ordination is that if one is married, they stick to their spouse and that's it.

So what does that mean for non-clergy? Well if such expectations are placed on candidates for ordination, on the basis of being persons of integrity--blameless--as Paul says to Timothy; then it would follow that these are good and right things.

The New Testament, also, consistently speaks of marriage in strictly monogamous language. While it never explicitly condemns polygamy, it seems to treat monogamy as the only valid expression of human coupling. Not just in the example of what is expected for candidates of ordination, but also when speaking of marriage generally. Jesus says a man leaves his parents and is joined to his wife. Paul's letters speaks of husband and wife pairs, consistently.

The Church has, on this basis, consistently understood that monogamy is the only acceptable path in coupling. One can be married or celibate, if married, it's monogamous.

-CryptoLutheran

 

[Strong in Him]

It’s not talked about as sin in the New Testament and a variety types different type of sins are discussed.

Paul said an elder must be the husband of one wife.

But even if you could find a verse that allowed Christian men to have more than one wife; it's illegal.

 

[Yekcidmij]

It’s not talked about as sin in the New Testament and a variety types different type of sins are discussed.

In Jesus' comments on divorce in Matt 19, he used the same verses from the OT that the Qumran community used to justify monogamy
(CD 4.20-21; see also: Jesus' Old Testament Basis for Monogamy). Like the Jews at Qumran, Jesus appealed to the created order in the creation of man and woman and the union of one man and one woman to argue against divorce. In other words, Jesus' comments on divorce were rooted in the basis of monogamy. In addition to those very same verses used to justify monogamy, the Qumran community also pointed out that when animals went onto the ark, the went in male-female pairs (not male with multiple females).

 

[BurningBush84]

So many of these famous/righteous people from the Old Testament not only had multiple wives , they also had many concubines. And where is God's clear condemnation of these sexually immoral acts in the old testament?

 

[Yekcidmij]

So many of these famous/righteous people from the Old Testament not only had multiple wives , they also had many concubines. And where is God's clear condemnation of these sexually immoral acts in the old testament?

It's not explicitly condemned in the OT. In some cases it was even mandated (Levirate marriage: Deut 25:5-10). What we can say though is that Jesus endorsed monogamy and rooted his reason in the OT (see my post above).

 

[trophy33]

So many of these famous/righteous people from the Old Testament not only had multiple wives , they also had many concubines. And where is God's clear condemnation of these sexually immoral acts in the old testament?

Its a sin in the New Testament. Not in the Old Testament.

There are quite a few changes between testaments. For example, the Old Testament says "hate your enemy". Which is a sin in the New one. Or, there are commandments to kill adulterers, in the Old Testament. Which would be a sin today.

 

[BurningBush84]

Its a sin in the New Testament. Not in the Old Testament.

There are quite a few changes between testaments. For example, the Old Testament says "hate your enemy". Which is a sin in the New one. Or, there are commandments to kill adulterers. Which would be a sin today.

So God used too condone sexual promiscuity, but now he condemns it ???? I thought God never changes?

 

[trophy33]

So God used too condone sexual promiscuity, but now he condemns it ???? I thought God never changes?

Context changes. What is OK for a small tribe in ancient times that struggles for survival is not morally OK for the whole world.

Also, you may notice that the polygamy in the OT almost always came with serious problems for the man involved in it.

 

[BurningBush84]

What about Malachi 3:6 and Hebrews 13:8 ??

 

[trophy33]

What about Malachi 3:6 and Hebrews 13:8 ??

Still the same answer as above. We are not talking about God, but about various covenants/rules/testaments. Those changed.

 

[BurningBush84]

Still the same answer as above. We are not talking about God, but about various covenants/rules/testaments. Those changed.

So God at sometimes condones promiscuity????

 

[Strong in Him]

So God at sometimes condones promiscuity????

No more than he condones sin.

David, Solomon etc may have had more than one wife, but who says that that was God's will for them?
Ever since the Garden, God has allowed mankind to make their own choices - and often we have to live with the consequences of those choices.
The Lord commanded men not to marry women from other countries, so that their faith would not be compromised and they would not worship other gods. Solomon disobeyed that, 1 Kings 11:1-2 - and his wives led him astray, 1 Kings 11:3-5.

 

[ViaCrucis]

So God used too condone sexual promiscuity, but now he condemns it ???? I thought God never changes?

What did Jesus say about divorce? See Matthew 19:8

Did God change His mind about divorce? The answer, of course, is no.

What about slavery? The Torah gives instructions about slaves--does that mean slavery is okay? The answer, of course, is no.

-CryptoLutheran

 

[Yekcidmij]

No more than he condones sin.

David, Solomon etc may have had more than one wife, but who says that that was God's will for them?
Ever since the Garden, God has allowed mankind to make their own choices - and often we have to live with the consequences of those choices.
The Lord commanded men not to marry women from other countries, so that their faith would not be compromised and they would not worship other gods. Solomon disobeyed that, 1 Kings 11:1-2 - and his wives led him astray, 1 Kings 11:3-5.

In fact, the king specifically was not to marry "many wives" according to the laws of the king (Deut 17:14-20); and Solomon specifically seems to have flagrantly violated the laws of the king in Deut 17. Around the time of Jesus, at least some Jews interpreted this passage as a prohibition of polygamy for the king, and used it as an argument to justify monogamy (see my first post on this thread).

 

[Yekcidmij]

What did Jesus say about divorce? See Matthew 19:8

Did God change His mind about divorce? The answer, of course, is no.

What about slavery? The Torah gives instructions about slaves--does that mean slavery is okay? The answer, of course, is no.

-CryptoLutheran

Yea, I'd say in many cases the Torah addresses human behavior and the human condition as it is, vs how it would be in an ideal world. In many of those cases, it also lays the groundwork for a correct morality. So for polygamy (and divorce), though it permits and regulates them (and for Levirate marriage, mandates it), it also lays the foundation for monogamy (and lifelong marriage) by describing the created order, the creation of male and female, the union of a male and a female in marriage, the male-female pairing of animals going into the ark, and the limitations placed on the king (Deut 17). For slavery, though it permits it, it again lays the foundation for freedom in principles like, "do not steal" or "the Lord gives and takes life" (Deut 32:39) or "everything in the heavens and earth belong to God" (Deut 10:14).