HuntingMan
Well-Known Member
Actually *IF* you understood His words Hes NOT actually even giving a seal of approval on divorcing for adultery. That ISNT His point in the least.And Jesus responds that divorce isn't okay except in cases of adultery.
His point is to EXPOSE the sins of the Jews who cast out their wives without cause to take someone else.
Are you actually claiming here that these folks were casting out their wives to be celibate ? Come one guy....lets get real here.
They were throwing out one wife to take someone else more pleasing...are you making up some new details here?
Uh...yeah....it is....precisely what they were doing....as Herod is evidence of.It's not talking about divorce with intent to remarry.
riiiight.It's just talking about divorce and divorced people getting remarried.
And as we know there is NEVER any context from which Christ is speaking....He speaks blindly in a vaccuum without any real point, I suppose.
THIS is why you reject the truth....
Christ was dealign with the Jewish sin of casting ouit their wives to take someone else...sorry but that is just the fact...just as we see many doing today.
That is why He deals with BOTH the divorce AND remarriage in the gospels...to show the Jewish men (mainly) that they WERE committing sin even if they believed that Moses allowed them to do what they were doing...
Do you think I care if you find them acceptable or not ?It's not my whims, it's what's acceptable in debate or not. Articles that you've written are not acceptable, whether you like that or not.
There is a list of pastors who use my material for teaching their own congregations....Im hardly dismayed that you dont like what I have to offer here
edit....adding this for those who read this thread.
No, like many others accounts in the gospels, there are some details recorded in one account that isnt recorded in another. Very likely this is why we have FOUR gospel accounts at our disposal.Now, there is one key differences between Mark 10 and Matthew 19 that indicate Jesus was not saying the same thing to the same people. Between Mark 8 and Matthew 15, there are 3 key differences- differences in event, message, and people involved.
Im sorry....WHERE again does it literally SAY "ONLY the pharisees were there" ???Mark 8 states that just the Pharisees are involved (people),
It doesnt. It simply doesnt record every detail the other account does.
And again, *IF* we study in this manner then there was more than one resurrection
No the men are typically what are numbered. Did you not notice that even in the other gospel it mentioned the number of MEN (4000) and then just casually states that there were also women.that in the previous feeding only 4000 TOTAL people were present
And so there must be two resurrections according to your rules of interpretation since there are pretty big differences in those accounts.and in the events after Jesus heals a blind man and doesn't talk with his disciples right away (event),
This one is just amazing. sign of the times ??? Where was that one againand Jesus is talking about miraculous signs not just a sign of the times like in Matthew's account. (message).
They BOTH give a VERY brief description of what they ask of Him....a sign from heaven....the EXACT phrase both times...yet somehow GC is able to discern that its NOT the same sort of sign being asked for.
It IS the same sign from heaven they request and it is the SAME event BOTH accounts. Ive already proven this fact.
Last edited:
Upvote
0