cygnusx1 said:
and just why would God be pressing a moral obligation , if He is not showing kindness ?
Who ever said he is not showing kindness?
cygnusx1 said:
and if He is showing kindness , he is showing it for a reason ............... you have the reason spelled out for you in the text ......... to lead them to repentance ....... not condemnation , they are already condemned!
This does not follow. You are committing the fallacy of affirming the consequence, commonly known as
post hoc. Because the moral obligation to repent comes after God's showing forth of kindness, you assume that this is the reason that God shows kindness. This is not correct. God shows kindess because it is in his nature to do so. God is love. Love is a volition, one that is acted upon. God makes his love known by showing forth kindness. As our Lord says in Matthew's Gospel:
(Mt. 5:45-48 AV) That ye may be the children of your Father which is in heaven: for he maketh his sun to rise on the evil and on the good, and sendeth rain on the just and on the unjust. 46) For if ye love them which love you, what reward have ye? do not even the publicans the same? 47) And if ye salute your brethren only, what do ye more than others? do not even the publicans so? 48) Be ye therefore perfect, even as your Father which is in heaven is perfect.
Why does God do this?
(Rom. 2:11 AV) For there is no respect of persons with God.
Moreover,
(Rom. 9:22, 23 AV) What if God, willing to shew his wrath, and to make his power known, endured with much longsuffering the vessels of wrath fitted to destruction: 23) And that he might make known the riches of his glory on the vessels of mercy, which he had afore prepared unto glory,
And what is God's disposition toward those
he has afore prepared for destruction?
(Ps. 5:6 AV) Thou shalt destroy them that speak leasing: the LORD will abhor the bloody and deceitful man.
(Ps. 11:5 AV) The LORD trieth the righteous: but the wicked and him that loveth violence his soul hateth.
Is it even true that the Lord hears the cries of the wicked? No, he does not:
(Ps. 18:41 AV) They cried, but there was none to save them: even unto the LORD, but he answered them not.
Why not?
(Heb. 2:17 AV) Wherefore in all things it behoved him to be made like unto his brethren, that he might be a merciful and faithful high priest in things pertaining to God, to make reconciliation for the sins of the people.
Faith in Christ Jesus secures him as our personal High Priest before the Father. The wicked do not have the gift of faith.
(Eph. 2:8 AV) For by grace are ye saved through faith; and that not of yourselves: it is the gift of God:
Faith is the gift of God and it is
denied to the reprobate.
(John 6:65 AV) . . . Therefore said I unto you, that no man can come unto me, except it were given unto him of my Father.
(John 8:42, 43 AV) Jesus said unto them, If God were your Father, ye would love me: for I proceeded forth and came from God; neither came I of myself, but he sent me. 43) Why do ye not understand my speech? even because ye cannot hear my word.
(Mt. 7:21 AV) Not every one that saith unto me, Lord, Lord, shall enter into the kingdom of heaven; but he that doeth the will of my Father which is in heaven.
(John 6:40 AV) And this is the will of him that sent me, that every one which seeth the Son, and believeth on him, may have everlasting life: and I will raise him up at the last day.
I do not know how much more clear it can be. The Scriptures clearly teach that Christ's work on the cross is intended
solely for the elect. If Christ only died for the elect, then how in the world can one say that God nevertheless desires the repentance of the reprobate? The Scriptures also teach that God's purpose for the reprobate is judgment and destruction. He has constructed both vessels of wrath and vessels of mercy.
I am just at a completely loss as to why anyone would want to contradict the Bible on this. It certainly does nothing to protect the character of God (as if God needed our theological formulations for his character to be guarded). It anything, it involves God in a deceptive and disingenuine offer of salvation to those that are incapable of even hearing the Gospel. Let us read the account of Ezekiel in the valley of bones:
(Eze. 37:3b AV) . . . Son of man, can these bones live? And I answered, O Lord GOD, thou knowest.
In v. 3, God asks and Ezekiel answers that bones cannot live. Who are the bones? The
unregenerate.
(Gen. 2:17 AV) But of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil, thou shalt not eat of it: for in the day that thou eatest thereof thou shalt surely die.
(Rom. 6:23a AV) For the wages of sin is death. . . .
(Eph. 2:1) And you . . . were dead in trespasses and sins;
What is required for them to live? No, even more, what is required for them to even
hear?
(Eze. 37:5 AV) Thus saith the Lord GOD unto these bones; Behold, I will cause breath to enter into you, and ye shall live:
(John 6:63 AV) It is the spirit that quickeneth; the flesh profiteth nothing: the words that I speak unto you, they are spirit, and they are life.
(1 Co. 2:14 AV) But the natural man receiveth not the things of the Spirit of God: for they are foolishness unto him: neither can he know them, because they are spiritually discerned.
(Titus 3:5 AV) Not by works of righteousness which we have done, but according to his mercy he saved us, by the washing of regeneration, and renewing of the Holy Ghost;
Of especial note is 1 Co. 2:14, wherein the apostle Paul even says that the natural man cannot even
receive the things of the Spirit of God because they are spiritually discerned. Without the washing of regeneration and the rebirth into the kingdom of God, the reprobate cannot even hear the spiritual call of the Gospel. They are spiritually
dead! The dead neither hear nor respond.
How then can God genuinely offer salvation to corpses! They are already dead! Does he desperately hope the dead man will repent even though he naught but bones and dust? How can dry bones do anything even approaching repentance?
Do you understand my difficulty with your position, cygnus? What appeal can you possibly make in light of these scriptural evidences? What argument can you bring forth that will harmonize your doctrine with the biblical doctrine of the Gospel? You can appeal to nothing but contradiction.
But I stand by
sola Scriptura and say that the Bible contains no contradictions.
Soli Deo Gloria
Jon