Jon_
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- Jan 30, 2005
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cygnusx1 said:Rutherford shows here (sorry about the quaint olde English) that there is a desire in God for all to repent and for none to perish.
He further shows clearly , that this desire , is NOT the same type of desire that you have assumed I have been speaking of Jon.
For If It were God's absolute desire to save all mankind , then certainly He would do it! (on this point we both agree)
Yet , should it be said , because God has no absolute desire to save every man , then He has no desire to save every man , then that would be false.
The desire God has , that all are saved is a desire is complacent , unfeigned and a desire of approval.
viz, that Men would repent and not suffer for their sin is pleasing to God.
as I attempted to show by my illustration of the man losing his arm to save his wife , he desired to keep His arm (considered from a desire of complacency and approval) He desired to lose his arm (considered from a desire of action)
These are both desires , but not in the same sense.
I wish you wouldn't name-drop so much, but would respond to my arguments.
In any case, allow me to demonstrate the logic of your argument here:
Premise #1) God does not desire all men be saved.
Premise #2) God does desire that every man be saved.
Conclusion) Therefore, God does not desire all men be saved, but he desires that every man be saved.
How do you expect me to respond to this? How is this not completely and totally contradictory?
You are continuing to equivocate on "desire." You try to show that God can have different salvific desires. This is illogical. The sense is desire of salvific statusGod's desire regarding the state of the soul of the person. The sense, the end of which I am speaking, is the eternal state of the person's soul. You cannot equivocate on this. There isn't even a way to conceptualize how God could desire the reprobate's soul to be eternally saved and be eternally damned. That is a flat-out contradiction. It is irreconcilable.
What is happening here is you are introducing ambiguity into your understanding of desire by assuming that God wants every man to come to him and repent on his own (complacent desire), but that he is not going to regenerate them, thus allowing them to succeed (I'll call this effective desire).
The problem with this position is that only one of these desires leads to salvation, i.e. effective desire. Complacent desire does not lead to salvation, so it is fallacious to say that God complacently desires the reprobate be saved. His only desire to salvation is his effective desire: "But our God is in the heavens: he hath done whatsoever he hath pleased" (Ps. 115:3 AV, also cf. Job 23:13).
So, again, the problem with your lose arm/save wife illustration is that it is non-applicable to God, for "he hath done whatsoever he hath pleased."
Soli Deo Gloria
Jon
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