greatdivide46
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- Nov 7, 2011
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Amen. I couldn't agree with you more.Jesus also appeared to the 10 disciples, minus Thomas and gave them an infilling of the Holy Spirit then, where was the speaking in tongues? (cf. John 20:21-22)
So it is possible for a person to have the Holy Spirit and not speak in tongues.
As a matter of fact, the recording of actual speaking in tongues is only mentioned three times in Acts. (Acts 2, 10, 19)
And the Apostle Paul is plain to point out that not everybody will be given this.
Wrong about what?The fact is, the Greek text proves you wrong.
Quite right. I couldn't agree more.The fact is, Peter and the others had already received an infilling proior to Pentecost.
Fact is, nowhere can one show from scriptures that any of the disciples prior to Pentecost were baptized.
You could argue that some were baptized while serving under John the Baptists ministry as Andrew was a disciple of John the Baptist, however, Paul ran across disciples of John's baptism and re-baptized them.
But nowhere in scripture does t record that the disciples were baptized.
What argument is that?So your argument does not hold water.
I don't believe that's possible. First of all I don't think it happened and second of all I don't believe speaking in tongues is evidence of being infilled with the Holy Spirit. As I said before I don't believe there's a necessary connection between speaking and tongues and receiving the indwelling, regenerating presence of the Holy Spirit it one's life.So show me in scriptures where all the "Christians" in the primative churches at Corinth, Colossae, Phillpi, Galatia, Ephesus, Thessolinica, etc., spoke in tongues as evidence of being infilled with the Holy Spirit.
I will argue on. And just so you know I used to believe exactly what you believe. But as I studied the Bible for myself and ceased relying without question on what my teachers told me I found I had been indoctrinated in a sectarian group. I now believe that I see much more clearly what the Bible teaches regarding the meaning and purpose of baptism as well as many other tenets of our faith.
BUT, argue on. One thing I have noticed, when someone is indoctrinated in sectarian groups, over issues like the sabbath, baptism, etc., it matters not what the text says, English and Greek, dogma ALWAYS take precedence over scriptural truth, (in their eyes.)
Didn't realized this was answered.While I believe that baptism is necessary for salvation, I do not believe that baptism saves anyone. Only God can do that and I don't see why some people refuse to believe that God can save us at our baptisms. That seems to me to be what the Bible teaches. When God's Word says that we should be baptized for the forgiveness of our sins that doesn't mean that baptism forgives our sins -- it means that God forgives us when we are baptized.
As for the thief on the cross -- it is my belief that since Christian baptism was not even instituted until after the resurrection of Christ he (the thief) couldn't have been a candidate for baptism. Therefore, baptism was not a necessity for him.
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