I was wondering how far back up the evolutionary tree we can go and posit that the "voice in our head": had its own equivalent in those early times?
For sure if we go back little way there can be little doubt that ,say Socrates was constructing dialogues in his head .
If we go back further to the earliest historical figures in recorded history the same surely applies(even if we cannot actually prove it,)
What about even earlier ancestors ? Suppose they did not have written language or that they had no syntax in their vocalisation...
Could they too have had an "internal mentation" that was separate to their immediate dealings with their social or physical environment?
Could there have been logical underpinning to whatever was going on between their ears ?
Would a sensory overload (pain) be a logical trigger for maybe not repeating the action?
How might someone without proper speech tell themselves "Don't do that again me old mate! "?
For sure if we go back little way there can be little doubt that ,say Socrates was constructing dialogues in his head .
If we go back further to the earliest historical figures in recorded history the same surely applies(even if we cannot actually prove it,)
What about even earlier ancestors ? Suppose they did not have written language or that they had no syntax in their vocalisation...
Could they too have had an "internal mentation" that was separate to their immediate dealings with their social or physical environment?
Could there have been logical underpinning to whatever was going on between their ears ?
Would a sensory overload (pain) be a logical trigger for maybe not repeating the action?
How might someone without proper speech tell themselves "Don't do that again me old mate! "?