I've posted links and definitions throughout the thread.
Repeat please. I am looking for a standard English language source, not some dreamed up implication somewhere in a personal Wikipedia encounter or whatever.
Reputable dictionary please (which is where we find the definitions of words, you know).
You'll remember my most recent attempt, it was the one where you didn't understand why I posted it. Now you think it's important again. Round and round you go.
You poster a scientific definition of human consciousness (or the word conscious as applied to humans) and it
did not define "consciousness" (or, if you would like "conscious") as the brain,
did it? Even if it did, it would not be a universal definition, just one from human psychology as it was a definition from human psychology. Whats the objection to this?
Hey look, an argument from ignorance.
If youre making a claim then the burden of proof is on you to come up with the defintion. I am saying I don't know of a definition, and you have to provide one. I am not saying there isn't one, but as far as I am familiar with standard reference tools there is not.
Meanwhile back in reality, all known instances of consciousness (billions and billions of them) occur in close relationship to brains. There are no other known instances.
I agree. Except when it comes to simpler lifeforms such as worms and the likes which might have some form of awareness but afaik some of them do not have brains. Whether we can "know" them to be conscious or not is a very incomplete and sketchy science though.
Since words are used to describe what we see, we say the definition of consciousness is a particular type of brain activity.
Who is this "we". You and your friends? Certainly afaik not the staff working on the Oxford English Dictionary. You should know that the meaning of English terms are found in such dictionaries, and you can't just invent them as you go along - even if it would help your argument to do so. So who is this "we"?
Using your argument, this is only because you're generalizing from one instance of chocolate.
No, because chocolate has a chemical definition. So it is not hasty generalisation to imply that all chocolate ought to have a certain chemical form, but rather it is a valid inference.