Jig said:
This has nothing to do with the debate at hand. You are simply trying to say something negative about my post.
No, really...I'm a grammar Nazi. Somtimes it gets the better of me.
Apologies.
And this is supposed to prove analogies are evidence? I'm sure any court of law would strongly disagree with you.
While an analogy is indeed not evidence, it IS meaningful and relevant.
In that case, you haven't been paying much attention. Also, nice unnessacary negative remark at the end there. How does insulting me prove anything about the topic we are discussing?
It doesn't. I apologize.
Nevertheless, your arguments are still illogical. Just because ONE household comprises only adult believers does not therefore mean ALL households are the same. As I said to tall73, the natural reading of household must include the things one normally expects to find in a (1st century eastern Mediterranean) household.
Well, it does say..."and the Word (God) became flesh" That's pretty darn close, but that's not the point. There is strong evidence for the deity of Jesus, this is not so for infant baptism.
Well, I spent 10 seconds arguing like a JW; I can't do it anymore. The point however, is that there are a number of inferred doctrines that we find in the Scriptures. The Trinity is an oft cited example as well.
It would be great if you could provide some verses/passages.
Colossians 2 was the one I was thinking of....
Jig said:
Kepler said:
Yes, Jig, there are examples of adults who converted, all of whom were baptized after they believed. SO. WHAT??
Don't down play it, there are ONLY examples of such...that is a big deal.
Okaaaaaaaay......"big deal" SEE THE NEXT POST.
Is there any verses that back this up as being the model after Jesus death?
"Are there...?"
Oops, sorry. See above.
Anyhow...
1. In every New Testament command and instance of baptism the requirement of faith precedes baptism. So infants incapable of faith are not to be baptized
Ah, the fallacy of
hasty generalization.
If I have ten cats in a room, all of which have green eyes, does that prove that all cats have green eyes? No.
2. There are no explicit instances of infant baptism in all the Bible. The three "household baptisms" mentioned (household of Lydia, Acts 16:15; household of the Philippian jailer, Acts 16:30-33; household of Stephanus, 1 Corinthians 1:16) no mention is made of infants,
There is also no explicit reference which denies Infant baptism.
Jig said:
and in the case of the Philippian jailer, Luke says explicitly, "they spoke the word of the Lord to him together with all who were in his house" (Acts 16:32), implying that the household who were baptized could understand the word of the Lord.
Interesting. When I lived in Berlin, I had an elderly gentleman "speak to me" once because I had accidentally dropped an empty cup on the floor of the U-Bahn station. Actually he yelled at me. Now just because he "spoke to" me does not imply -- in any way, shape, or form -- that I necessarily understood him. (Yes, I understood his frantic hand gestures, but not his words).
Just BECAUSE they spoke to all of his house, does NOT NECESSARILY mean that ALL were capable of understanding.
Sheesh.
3. Paul (in Colossians 2:12) explicitly defined baptism as an act done through faith: ". . . having been buried with Him in baptism, in which you were also raised up with Him through faith in the working of God." In baptism you were raised up with Christ through faith - your own faith, not your parents' faith. If it is not "through faith" - if it is not an outward expression of inward faith - it is not baptism.
Again, hasty generalization. Paul is speaking to adults converts.
4. The apostle Peter, in his first letter, defined baptism this way, ". . . not the removal of dirt from the flesh, but an appeal to God for a good conscience - through the resurrection of Jesus Christ" (1 Peter 3:21). Baptism is "an appeal to God for a good conscience." It is an outward act and expression of inner confession and prayer to God for cleansing, that the one being baptized does, not his parents.
Hasty generalizaiton.
5. When the New Testament church debated in Acts 15 whether circumcision should still be required of believers as part of becoming a Christian, it is astonishing that not once in that entire debate did anyone say anything about baptism standing in the place of circumcision. If baptism is the simple replacement of circumcision as a sign of the new covenant, and thus valid for children as well as for adults, as circumcision was, surely this would have been the time to develop the argument and so show that circumcision was no longer necessary. But it is not even mentioned.
Assuming the consequent; Begging the Question; Petitio principii; Circular reasoning; tautology
You are assuming that infant baptism was not practised and then using that assumption as the reason for it not being mentioned in Acts 15.
6. In 1 Timothy 3:12 there is a clear seperation between young children and ones household.
1) The text does not say "young". The greek is neither
paedos (which covers infants through pre-teen) nor
brephos (which is spedifically infants). The greek is
teknon. Even though I am 37, I am still a
teknon (as I relate to my parents). IOW, even though I am not a
child, I am still my Father's
child.
Wow! ...wood'ja lookit that? SAME word (child) means something
completely different, depending on the context.
In the case of 1 Tim 3:12, Paul is ONLY making the distinction between people (in the household) for whom the deacon is repsonsible because they are his offspring (teknon)
AND for whom he is responsible simply because they reside in his house (his widowed mother-in-law, orphaned nieces or nephews, servants, slaves, or just a Christian brother who has come to live with him). The distinction is that the deacon is responsible for the
whole house, not just his kids.
2) Hasty generalization - Just becasue Paul makes this distinction here does not mean we always apply such a distinction. Just because Timothy's cat had green eyes does not mean that all cats in the NT had green eyes.
K