Arbitrated by who or what?
According to what rule?
According to the Orthodox Church. This does not impact you, since you are not part of the Orthodox Church. Nevertheless, our view is a valid and well-supported view- supported by logic, scripture, tradition. (a formula that would be supported by both Lutheran and Anglican)
It's called "Sola Scriptura."
No, it's called canon. Sola scriptura is an odd and etymologically problematic phrase.
A beautiful and very accurate definition of Sola Scriptura.
Thanks, but it is actually simply the English rendering of the word kanona
I agree, which creates some very significant issues vis-a-vis the Catholic Church.
Somewhat significant, but no more significant than those posed by those who demand scripture only and then set to shifting the sets of scripture brought into the argument.
I tend to personally agree.
Which creates some very significant issues vis-a-vis the Cathollic Church.
See above
As predicted. The poblem is in the reading of the canon, and who decides on what the canon actually says, which is open to significant differences in what the canon says. The Rabbiic Jews disagree with our HIGHLY allegorized reading of the OT prophecies. The strictest, most literalist rendering of OT prophecies, sans Christian scripture ( a new and added tradition) puts their interpretation on equal or perhaps supeior standing to our own.
There's nothing whatsoever in God's holy inerrant written Word about the private sex lives of Mary and Joseph after Jesus was born - NOTHING whatsoever about how often Mary and Joseph did or didn't "do it" after Jesus was born, thus this dogma has zero biblical confirmation.
According to the ECFs, and in particular John of Damascus, you in this case are wrong, in particuar due to your truncated reading of certain NT passages. There is NOTHING in the NT which supports Mary having other children-if one reads the passages in full.
And IMHO (that's all, IMHO) this is NOT an issue of interpretation or hermeneutics. For it to be such an issue, there would have to be some Scriptures we are interpreting, and since there are NONE whatsoever about the sharing of such intimacies between Mary and Joseph after Jesus was born, therefore there are no verses to interpret - thus this has nothing whatsoever to do with hermeneutics or interpretation.
On the contrary, the understanding of the Nicean fathers, who referred to her as The Virgin, not "the once Virgin," was that there is nothing in the NT that says that Mary and Jospeh either married or consummated.
Thank you for this important discussion, and thank you for reading my $0.01. May God richly bless you and yours in Christ our Suffering Servant in this holy season of Lent.
Thank you very kindly. May God save us from the vice of pride, from idle talk, the lust for power, and the need to judge our brothers.
Iakovos
Pax!
- Josiah
.[/quote]