Your reply reminds me of the common anti-Catholic list of when all the 'errors' were invented. I'm sure you know the list.
The anti-catholic charge again. I usually hear this whenever the person with whom I am speaking lacks a sound argument. It provides the person a way out without having to respond to anything that's been presented. That is exactly what you have done here.
I guess St. Augustine wrote after December 8th, 1854 then when he wrote "As regards the mother of God, I will not allow any question whatever of sin."
This is another common tactic, quote a father in half a sentence and not give the source. So I had a pretty good idea of where this came from already. Here is the context of the quote and the source down to the page:
He then enumerates those “who not only lived without sin, but are described as having led holy lives,—Abel, Enoch, Melchizedek, Abraham, Isaac, Jacob, Joshua the son of Nun, Phinehas, Samuel, Nathan, Elijah, Joseph, Elisha, Micaiah, Daniel, Hananiah, Azariah, Mishael, Mordecai, Simeon, Joseph to whom the Virgin Mary was espoused, John.” And he adds the names of some women,—“Deborah, Anna the mother of Samuel, Judith, Esther, the other Anna, daughter of Phanuel, Elisabeth, and also the mother of our Lord and Saviour, for of her,” he says, “we must needs allow that her piety had no sin in it.” We must except the holy Virgin Mary, concerning whom I wish to raise no question when it touches the subject of sins, out of honour to the Lord; for from Him we know what abundance of grace for overcoming sin in every particular was conferred upon her who had the merit to conceive and bear Him who undoubtedly had no sin
Augustine of Hippo. (1887). A Treatise on Nature and Grace. In P. Schaff (Ed.), P. Holmes (Trans.), Saint Augustine: Anti-Pelagian Writings (Vol. 5, p. 135). New York: Christian Literature Company.
You will notice if you read the quotation carefully that Augustine is not arguing for the sinless of Mary but rather that he does not want to take the issue out of respect for the Lord. Furthermore, the argument here is of actual sin not original sin which is what the dogma of the Immaculate Conception teaches.
The Greek Fathers too, who spoke of the sinlessness of Mary, her being 'pre-purified' must also have done so on orders from the Vatican, but only after December 8th, 1854.
It depends on the time frame. Do you have anything before the fourth century? Please give source when replying.
Edward Gibbon says that the Catholic Church stole the idea from Islam, but then he wrote that in 1788, and that's before 1854.
The wonders of the genuine and apocryphal gospels
86 are profusely heaped on his head; and the Latin church has not disdained to borrow from the Koran the immaculate conception
87 of his virgin mother. Yet Jesus was a mere mortal; and, at the day of judgment, his testimony will serve to condemn both the Jews, who reject him as a prophet, and the Christians, who adore him as the Son of God. The malice of his enemies aspersed his reputation, and conspired against his life; but their intention only was guilty; a phantom or a criminal was substituted on the cross; and the innocent saint was translated to the seventh heaven.
I would have avoided this quote. You are assuming he means the same thing you mean with Immaculate Conception. There's not enough here to figure out what he means.
The hymn 'Tota pulchera es' was pretty clear about it all, but instead of being written after 1854 it comes from the fourth century, before Islam even existed.
There is an assertion this hymn comes from the fourth century. It may indeed, but I cannot find if it was in the same form it is today or has been altered or when it was composed. The
Liber Usualis doesn't reference where the version was taken.
Here is another interesting quote from quite a bit before 1854, in fact 1527, although exact authorship is uncertain and the purported author removed it from later editions: "It is a sweet and pious belief that the infusion of Mary's soul was effected without original sin; so that in the very infusion of her soul she was also purified from original sin and adorned with God's gifts, receiving a pure soul infused by God; thus from the first moment she began to live she was free from all sin."
If you are going to quote something could you at least provide the name of the work so I reference said work?
Point being this was not invented in 1854. It was nothing new to Augustine 1450 years earlier. Mary the sinner is a pious invention of Protestants. A sinless Mary is boringly old. But you said it was invented by the Vatican in 1854, on December 8th. That's pretty far fetched, harder to believe than to believe Mary was actually sinless.
Paul didn't get message in Romans when he wrote under inspiration from God the Holy Spirit:
. . . for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God (Rom 3:23 NASB)
Clearly it was new to Augustine because he didn't write about it. No protestant I know ever said Mary was some gross sinner. She did need a savior though. From the
Magnificat:
MY soul doth magnify the Lord, and my spirit hath rejoiced in God my Saviour. (Luke 1:46-47)
No person free from original sin needs a saviour. The belief precedes 1854 but it was not dogma. A faithful RC could deny the teaching without sinning. What happens to the person who rejects the dogma who died December 1 1854. A week later he church changes official teaching and now he is a heretic. What happens in that case? What about the council fathers at Nicea that didn't believe in the dogma. Are they heretics now too. Do you see the problem Rome created when it changed its teaching? There is just
the faith which was once for all handed down to the saints (Jude 3). It doesn't nor can it change according to scripture.